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Natali [406]
2 years ago
15

MARKING AS BRAINLIEST! LAST ATTEMPT! ) show ur work

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dvinal [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

√x³=√(x²·x)=x√x

√xy³z=√(x·y²·y·z)=y√xyz

√18x²y=√(3²·2·x²·y)=3x√2y

√32x⁴y²=√(2⁴·2·x⁴·y²)=2²x²y√2=4x²y√2

2√16x⁷y³z⁴=2√(2⁴·x⁶·x·y²·y·z⁴)=2³x³yz²√xy=8x³yz²√xy

-3√180x⁵y=-3√(3²·2²·5·x⁴·x·y)=-3(3)(2)x²√5xy=-18x²√5xy

5√108xyz²=5√(2²·3²·3·x·y·z²)=5(2)(3)z√3xy=30z√3xy

3x√xy¹⁰z⁷=3x√x·y¹⁰·z⁶·z)=3xy⁵z³√xz

x²√x³y²=x²√(x²·x·y²)=x²·x·y√x=x³y√x

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If it takes 16 yards of material to make 5/2 costumes, how much material will be needed to make 19/2 costumes of that same size?
IRISSAK [1]

yards/costumes:16/(5/2) = X/(19/2)

Cross multiply.

(5/2)x = 152

Multiply both sides by 2/5.

x = 101 1/3 yards

7 0
3 years ago
Find the sum of the interior angles of a regular 14-gon.
Ira Lisetskai [31]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  2160°

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of interior angles of a convex n-gon is ...

  angle sum = 180(n -2)°

When n=14, the angle sum is ...

  angle sum = 180(14 -2)° = 2160°

4 0
3 years ago
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CaHeK987 [17]

Answer:idk

Step-by-step explanation:

idk

7 0
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Read 2 more answers
(3/7 * (- 5/8)) + (1/3 * 5/6) + |- 1/2 - 1/5|
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Answer:

Exact Form:

1789/2520

Decimal Form:

0.70992063

8 0
2 years ago
The graph of an inverse trigonometric function passes through the point (1, pi/2). Which of the following could be the equation
rodikova [14]

Answer: C) y=sin^-1 x

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, the graph of an inverse trigonometric function will pass through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}),

If this point satisfies the function,

For the function y=cos^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=cos^{-1}1=0

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cos^{-1} x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=cot^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=cot^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function y=cot^{-1}x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cot^{-1}x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=sin^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=sin^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{2}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is satisfying function y=sin^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=sin^{-1} x is passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

For the function y=tan^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=tan^{-1} x is not passing through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

Hence, Option C is correct.

3 0
3 years ago
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