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SashulF [63]
3 years ago
5

How much times can 900 go into 8,000,000? Please help its due today!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
trasher [3.6K]3 years ago
8 0
It is going to be 8,888.888
lakkis [162]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

8,888.888

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 years ago
2+4(7+2²)<br> --------------<br> 4×2+5×3
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Answer:

\frac{46}{23}

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{2 + 4(7 +  {2}^{2} )}{4 \times 2 + 5 \times 3}

\frac{2 + 4(7 + 4)}{4 \times 2 + 5 \times 3}  =  \frac{2 + 4(7 + 4)}{8 + 5 \times 3}

\frac{2 + 4(7 + 4)}{8 + 15}  =  \frac{2 + 4 \times 11}{8 + 15}

\frac{2 + 4 \times 11}{23}  =  \frac{2 + 44}{23}

=  \frac{46}{23}

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She used 55% of her paycheck.
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4 years ago
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A card is drawn from a standard deck and replaced. After the deck is shuffled, another card is pulled. What is the probability t
Grace [21]

Answer:

0.0625 = 6.25% probability that the first card drawn is a diamond and the second card is a club

Step-by-step explanation:

A probability is the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

Probability of independent events:

The probability of independent events happening at the same time is the multiplication of the probabilities of each events.

First card:

A standard deck has 52 cards, of which 13 are diamonds. So

P(A) = \frac{13}{52} = \frac{1}{4}

Second card:

The first card is replaced, so still 52 cards, of which 13 are clubs. So

P(B) = \frac{13}{52} = \frac{1}{4}

What is the probability that the first card drawn is a diamond and the second card is a club?

Each drawing is independent, so

P(A \cap B) = P(A)*P(B) = \frac{1}{4}*\frac{1}{4} = \frac{1}{16} = 0.0625

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3 years ago
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Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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