Answer: Pay fixed rate while receiving floating rate.
Explanation:
According to the given question, If the second national bank contain more rate of liabilities as compared to the rate of asset in any organization then it basically reducing the risk of the interest rate by using the technique swapping with paying some fixed amount of rate at the time of receiving the floating rate.
The process of fixed to floating swap is one of the contractual process between any two types of companies or members so that they can swap their cash flow system.
Therefore, The given answer is correct.
Answer:
Explanation:
The journal entry to record the establishment of the fund on September 1 is:
Debit: Petty Cash. $460
Credit: Bank. $460
Being cash drawn for petty cash.
Other journal entry for the disbursement of the petty cash fund are:
1. Debit: Office Supplies. $94
Credit: Petty cash. $94
Being cash paid for office supplies
2. Debit:Merchandise inv. $170
Credit: Petty Cash. $170
Being cash paid for merchandise inventory
3. Debit: Miscellaneous exp. $43
Credit : Petty cash. $43
Being cash paid for miscellaneous expenses.
Answer: income from operations for the year and the amount by which the component’s fair value less cost to sell is less than book value
Explanation:
Discontinued operations is simply and accounting term which means the parts of the core business of a company that have either been shut down or divested.
With regards to the question, the amount that the company would report as income from discontinued operations would be the income or loss that was gotten from operations, that is revenues, the expenses, gains and the losses and the impairment loss.
Therefore, the correct answer will be option B "Income from operations for the year and the amount by which the components fair value less cost to sell is less than the book value".
Answer:beta
Explanation:Beta is a measure of a stock's volatility in relation to the overall market.
Beta is a component of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), which is used to calculate the cost of equity funding. The CAPM formula uses the total average market return and the beta value of the stock to determine the rate of return that shareholders might reasonably expect based on perceived investment risk. In this way, beta can impact a stock's expected rate of return and share valuation.
Beta is calculated using regression analysis. Numerically, it represents the tendency for a security's returns to respond to swings in the market. The formula for calculating beta is the covariance of the return of an asset with the return of the benchmark divided by the variance of the return of the benchmark over a certain period.
Answer:
8.15 %
Explanation:
Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is the business Cost of permanent sources of finance pooled together. It shows the risk of the business and is used to evaluate projects.
WACC = Cost of Equity x Weight of Equity + Cost of Preferred Stock x Weight of Preferred Stock + Cost of Debt x Weight of Debt
<u>Remember to use the After tax cost of debt :</u>
After tax cost of debt = Interest x ( 1 - tax rate)
= 6.50% x (1 - 0.40)
= 3.90 %
therefore,
WACC = 11.25% x 55% + 6.00% x 10% + 3.90 % x 35%
= 8.15 %
Thus,
Quigley's WACC is closest to 8.15 %.
