Answer:
A) 370
Explanation:
y = x^2 -4x
x = -1
y = (-1)^2 - 4×-1=1+4 = 5
x= 0
y = (0)^2 - 4×0 = 0
x = 1
y = 1^2 -4×1 = 1-4 = -3
x = 2
y = 2^2 -4×2 = 4-8 = -4
x=3
y = 3^2 - 4×3 = 9-12 = -3
x = 4
y = 4^2 - 4×4 = 16 - 16 = 0
now 2nd equation
y = 2x^2 + x
x = -2
y = 2 (-2)^2 + (-2)= 8-2 = 6
x = -1
y = 2 (-1)^2+(-1)= 2-1 = 1
x = 0
y = 2(0)^2 +0 = 0
x = 1
y = 2 (1)^2 + 1 = 3
x = 2
y = 2(2)^2+2= 8 + 2 = 10
Answer:
it equals 89/90
Step-by-step explanation:
the gcf of 89, 90 is 1, so the fraction can not be simplified. The answer is 89/90.
We can use the binomial theorem to find the probability that 0 out of the 15 samples will be defective, given that 20% are defective.
P(0/15) = (15C0) (0.2)^0 (1 - 0.2)^15 = (1)(1)(0.8)^15 = 0.0352
Then the probability that at least 1 is defective is equal to 1 - 0.0352 = 0.9648. This means there is a 96.48% chance that at least 1 of the 15 samples will be found defective. This is probably sufficient, though it depends on her significance level. If the usual 95% is used, then this is enough.
Answer:
m = 10 / 5 = 2 / 1 = 2
Step-by-step explanation:
