Answer:
-89/56
or simplified that would be
-1 and 33/56
Step-by-step explanation:
For question one, the easiest way to start is with t=0, so, everything inside the sine function will equal 0, and sin(0) is 0, so that is our starting point. Then, consider the following:
sin(pi/2) = 1
sin(pi) = 0
sin(3pi/2) = -1
sin(2pi) = 0
(You need to know the unit circle)
Then, we see that t=4 is a solution since the 4 times a half is 2, exactly what we need for 2 (pi). Also because it goes around the unit circle.
Problem 2 you just need the period formula. It is [2pi / b] and b is the number in front of t. So we get (2pi / (2pi / 15)). Simplifying leads to 30pi over 2pi which is just 15. Thus the period is 15 units
Lastly, Problem 3 asks for the inverse of a period since the frequency is 1 over the period. Applying the method from the last problem:
2pi / 524pi which simplifies to 1 over 262 is the period.
Now flipping 1 over 262 gives the frequency, which is just 262 by itself
Hope this long explanation helped
Answer:
It would take 15 students 6 days to weed the school compound
Step-by-step explanation:
This first step to solving this question is to break down the given rates.
We are told that 10 students take 9 days to weed the school compound. From here we can simplify this by figuring out how long it would take 1 student to weed the compound. Having less people would mean taking a longer time.
1 person is a 1/10 of 10 people. Since we have 10x less people, it should take 10x as long. Therefore it would take 1 person 9x10=90 days to weed a school.
Now the question asks how long it would take 15 people. 15 people is 15x as many as 1 person, so it should take 15x less time to weed the compound. 90/15 = 6
It would take 15 students 6 days to weed the school compound.
Similarly you could have just divided 9 by 1.5 as 15 is 1.5x10, but it is easier to explain the process using the above method.
Hope this helped!
(2n - 14)/2 = n - 7....multiply both sides by 2
2n - 14 = 2(n-7)
2n - 14 = 2n - 14
2n - 2n = 14 - 14
0 = 0
this equation will have infinite solutions
Answer:
1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
1/5 equals 2/10, so:
? - 3/10 = 2/10
To go backwards, we must add 3/10 to 2/10 and it is equal to 5/10, or 1/2.
So, 1/2 or 5/10 - 3/10 = 2/10