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nevsk [136]
3 years ago
9

If you are insolvent, what is something you can do, but should only be used as last resort

Business
1 answer:
sammy [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

<em>Bankruptcy</em><em> </em><em>should</em><em> </em><em>be </em><em>only</em><em> </em><em>used </em><em>as </em><em>a </em><em>last </em><em>resort</em><em>.</em>

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Jordan wants to know how long it will take for the money she deposited to double. She has an interest rate of 4 percent. Calcula
alexdok [17]
<span>4% X 18 (years) = 72.
Therefore, the investment will double in 18 years.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A manufacturer estimates that its product can be produced at a total cost of C(x) = 50,000 + 100x + x3 dollars. If the manufactu
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

The level of production x that will maximize the profit is: 22,966

Explanation:

C(x) = 50,000 + 100x + x³

R(x) = 3400x

P(x) = R(x) - C(x)

      = 3400x - [50,000 + 100x + x³]

      = 3400x - 50,000 - 100x - x³

      = 3300x - 50,000 - x³   .................... (A)

P'(x) = 3300(1) - 0 - 3x²

       = 3300 - 3x²

At a critical point, P'(x) = 0

∴   0 = 3300 - 3x²

  3x² = 3300

    x² = 1100

     x = ± \sqrt{1100}

P"(x) = -6x

P(\sqrt{1100}) = -6 (\sqrt{1100})   < 0

by second derivative, 'P' max at    x = \sqrt{1100} = 33.17 (rounds)

since x =  \sqrt{1100} ,

recall that P(x) = 3300x - 50,000 - x³ from equation (A)

Therefore, Maximum Profit

P(\sqrt{1100}) = 3300\sqrt{1100} - 50000 - \sqrt{1100} ^{3}

              = 3300(33.17) - 50,000 - 33.17³

              = 109461 -50,000 - 36495.26

              = 22,965.74

Maximum profit is 22,966 to the nearest whole number

5 0
3 years ago
On December 31, Year 1, JM Co. exchanged a used machine for a new machine from DP Inc. The used machine had a book value of $100
Evgen [1.6K]

Answer:

Situation 1:  JM Co.

a. The cost of the new machine in Year 1 = $150,000

b. JM should record a gain of $5,000 in Year 1.

Situation 2:  AB Inc.

a. The cost of the new machine in Year 1 = $65,500

b. AB Inc. should not record any loss or gain.

Situation 3: DDC

a. The cost of the new crane in Year 1 is $125,000

b. There is a gain of $5,000 from the transaction between DDC and ZN.

Explanation:

JM Co.

1) Used machine:

Book value = $100,000  ($120,000 cost minus $20,000 accumulated depreciation)

Fair value of $90,000

Gain on exchange = $5,000 ($105,000 - $100,000)

New machine:

List price = $150,000

Paid $105,000 with trade-in allowance

Paid $45,000 in cash

Value received from DP:

Book value                         $100,000

Cash paid                              45,000

Total value exchanged     $145,000

Fair value of new crane =   150,000

Gain on exchange               $5,000

3) JM records a gain of $5,000 being the difference between the trade-in allowance of $105,000 and the book value ($100,000) of the old machine

Situation 2:

AB Inc.

Used Truck:

Book value = $57,500 ($75,000 cost minus $17,500 accumulated depreciation)

Fair Value = $60,000

Value received from LL:

Book value                         $57,500

Cash paid                               8,000

Fair value of new crane =   65,500

No gain or loss.

Situation 3:

DDC Co.

Book value of used crane = $120,000

Fair value of $125,000

Value received from ZN:

Fair value of new crane = $110,000

Cash received                       15,000

Total value received         $125,000

Book value of old                120,000

Gain                                      $5,000

7 0
3 years ago
Scottso Corporation applies overhead using a normal costing approach based upon machine-hours. Budgeted factory overhead was $26
seropon [69]

Answer:

Overhead application rate

= <u>Budgeted overhead</u>

  Budgeted machine hours

= <u>$266,400</u>

  18,500 hours

= $14.40 per machine hour

Overhead applied

= Overhead application rate x Actual machine hours

= $14.40 x 19,050 hours

= $274,320

Under-applied overhead

= Overhead applied - Actual factory overhead

= $274,320 - $287,920

= $13,600

Explanation:

In this question, there is need to determine the overhead application rate, which is the ratio of budgeted factory overhead to budgeted machine hours. Then, we will calculate the overhead applied, which is overhead application rate multiplied by actual machine hours. Under-applied overhead is the difference between overhead applied and actual factory overhead.                              .

6 0
3 years ago
Wildhorse Company has recorded bad debt expense in the past at a rate of 1.5% of accounts receivable, based on an aging analysis
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer:

. If Wildhorse’s tax rate is 30%, what amount should it report as the cumulative effect of changing the estimated bad debt rate?

Answer is 0.

Explanation:

The answer is 0 because it has not impact in the accumulated value of the bad debts expenses.

The impact is in the current year of 2020 on the estimated value of $132,000 that will be reported as bad debt expenses but there is no impact in the accumulated value becasue it only has an impact in the current estimation.

7 0
3 years ago
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