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seropon [69]
2 years ago
14

Multiply (x^2 - 3x + 4)(-2x^2 + 4x - 1) Show the steps on how to solve please.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]2 years ago
5 0
-2x^4 + 10x^3 - 21x^2 + 19x - 4

that should be the right answer
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Find the area of the following polygons:
Art [367]
Area of ABCE:
12 x 4
= 48cm squared

Area of CDE:
To get the height of the triangle, you subtract 4 from 10.

10 - 4 = 6cm
Base = 12 cm

12 x 6 = 72cm

72 divided by 2
= 36cm squared.

48 + 36 = 84cm squared.

(if it’s asking individual areas, then it’s 48cm and 36cm)
8 0
3 years ago
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Without solving, determine whether the solution of x = 21 is greater than or less than 21. Explain.
astraxan [27]

Answer:

Without solving, the solution is greater than 21.  The can be proven because a fraction of x is equal to 21, therefore x cannot be less than 21.  

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Please help me, I’m<br> Dumb
vova2212 [387]

Answer: OPTION C

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve the exercise shown in the image attached, you need to subtract the functions f(x) and g(x).

Keeping the above on mind, you have:

(f-g)(x)=2x^{2}+2-(x^{2}-1)

You must distribute the negative sign and then you must add the like terms, therefore, you obtain:

(f-g)(x)=2x^{2}+2-x^{2}+1\\(f-g)(x)=x^{2} +3

4 0
3 years ago
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According to national data, 5.1% of burglaries are cleared with arrests. A new detective is assigned to six different burglaries
blagie [28]

Answer:

26.95% probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest

Step-by-step explanation:

For each burglary, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is cleared, or it is not. The probability of a burglary being cleared is independent of other burglaries. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

5.1% of burglaries are cleared with arrests.

This means that p = 0.051

A new detective is assigned to six different burglaries.

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest?

Either none are cleared, or at least one is. The sum of the probabilities of these events is 100% = 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1)

Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.051)^{0}.(0.949)^{6} = 0.7305

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.7305 = 0.2695

26.95% probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest

8 0
3 years ago
Simplify completely the quantity 5 times x to the third power plus 10 times x to the 2nd power plus 15 times x all over 5 times
aleksley [76]

Answer:

i. think it 1032

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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