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System A has ONE real solution
System B has NO real solutions
System C has ONE real solution
Answer:
D. unfavorable fixed overhead flexible minus budget variance
Step-by-step explanation:
As the cost of the equipment is increasing the fixed efficiency and idle capacity variance would be unfavorable resulting in an unfavorable fixed overhead flexible minus budget variance.
The expenses of the machinery are the fixed indirect costs which result in fixed overhead variances. Since it is related to the working of the machinery it would result in efficiency and idle capacity variances that in turn would give unfavorable fixed overhead of the flexible minus budget variance.
Answer:
AC ≈ 5.03
Step-by-step explanation:
We can solve the problem above using the trigonometric ratio, they are;
SOH CAH TOA
sin Ф = opposite / hypotenuse
cosФ= adjacent/ hypotenuse
tan Ф = opposite / adjacent
From the diagram above, in reference to angle B;
opposite =AC and adjacent =BC
Since we have opposite and adjacent, the best formula to use is
tanФ = opposite / adjacent
tan B = AC / BC
tan 40 = AC/ 6
Multiply both-side of the equation by 6
6× tan 40 = AC/ 6 × 6
At the right-hand side of the equation, 6 will cancel-out 6 leaving us with just AC
6×tan 40 = AC
5.034598 = AC
AC ≈ 5.03 to the nearest hundredths
The area is given by:
A = Ab + Al
Where,
Ab: base area
Al: lateral area
The area of the base is:
Ab = (3/2) * (L ^ 2) * (root (3))
Where,
L: side of the hexagon.
Substituting we have:
Ab = (3/2) * (4 ^ 2) * (root (3))
Ab = (3/2) * (16) * (root (3))
Ab = 24raiz (3)
The lateral area is:
Al = (6) * (1/2) * (b) * (h)
Where,
b: base of the triangle
h: height of the triangle
Substituting we have:
Al = (6) * (1/2) * (4) * (6)
Al = 72
The total area is:
A = 24raiz (3) + 72
Answer:
A = 24raiz (3) + 72
