The answer to your question is 706,000.
Answer:
{36, 38, 40, 42, 44}
Step-by-step explanation:
You are implying that you are adding up 5 consecutive numbers, and should use the word "add" or the word "sum."
"The sum of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 200" leads to:
x + (x+2) + (x+4) + (x+6) + (x+8) = 200. Note how each number is 2 more than the number preceding it. In this way you can guarantee that all of the 5 numbers are odd.
Summing up, we get 5x + 20 = 200, or 5x = 180.
Dividing both sides by 5, we get x = 36.
Then the 5 consecutive integers are
{36, 38, 40, 42, 44}. These add up to 200.
Unfortunately, these are consecutive EVEN numbers, not odd numbers.
Please ensure that you have copied down this problem correctly.
Answer: 2.5 hours.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.7361
Step-by-step explanation:
In this question we have
number to be 10
Then we have a probability of 10% = 0.10
We have q = 1-p
= 1-0.10 = 0.90
Then the probability of not more than 1 being defective:
P(x=0) + p(x= 1)
(10C0 x 0.1⁰ x 0.9^10-0)+(10C1 x 0.1¹ x 0.9^10-1)
= 1 x1 x0.3487 + 10 x 0.1 x 0.3874
= 0.3487 + 0.3874
= 0.7361
This is the the required probability and this answers the question.
probability = 10 percent = 0.1
q= 1- 10percent = 90% = 0.9
n = 4
To get the required probabiltiy for this question is
P(not greater than one is defective )=P(x=0)+P(x=1)
= 4C0x(0.1)⁰x(0.9)⁴+4C1x(0.1)¹x(0.9)³
= 0.9477
The required probability is 0.9477
712 is the answer of this question
