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Ulleksa [173]
2 years ago
9

When frank sells a pie to jean instead of sarah, the economic value created in society is lower because of the difference in:.

Business
1 answer:
Free_Kalibri [48]2 years ago
5 0

When frank sells a pie to jean instead of sarah, the economic value created in society is lower because of the difference in consumer surplus.

What is consumer surplus?

Consumer surplus occurs when a consumer pays a price that is lesser for a goods than the actual price they are willing to pay for a product.

Difference in consumer surplus occurs because Frank now has more customers and he can now sell at a price lower than the consumer would pay.

Therefore, Frank sells a pie to jean instead of sarah,when the economic value created in society is lower because of the difference in consumer surplus.

Learn more on consumer surplus here,

brainly.com/question/3209988

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Answer:

$3,208

Explanation:

The computation of the future value is shown below;

As we know that

Future valie = Present value × (1 + rate of interest)^number of years

where

Present value is $2,500

Rate of interest = 2.5% ÷ 4 = 0.625%

And, the time period is = 10  × 4 = 40

So, the future value is

= $2,500 × (1 + 0.625%)^40

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Your son is born today and you want to make him a millionaire by the time he is 50 years old. You deposit $50,000 in an investme
mel-nik [20]

Answer:

1000000= 50000 (1+ \frac{i}{1})^{1*50}

20 = (1+i)^{50}

20^{1/50} = 1+i

i = 20^{1/50} -1 = 0.0617

And if we convert this into % we got i = APR = 6.17 \%

See explanation below.

Explanation:

We assume that we have compounding interest.

For this case we can use the future value formula given by:

FV= PV (1+\frac{i}{n})^{nt}

Where:

FV represent the future value desired = 1000000

PV= represent the present value = 50000

i = the interest rate that we desire to find in fraction

n = number of times that the interest rate is compounding in 1 year, since the rate is annual then n=1

t = represent the number of years= 50 years

So then we have everything in order to replace and we got:

1000000= 50000 (1+ \frac{i}{1})^{1*50}

Now we can solve for the interest rate i like this:

20 = (1+i)^{50}

20^{1/50} = 1+i

i = 20^{1/50} -1 = 0.0617

And if we convert this into % we got i = APR = 6.17 \%

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Answer:

•Define how you want to be perceived

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