Answer:
If all you care about is whether you roll 2 or not, you get a Binomial distribution with an individual success probability 1/6. The probability of rolling 2 at least two times, is the same as the probability of not rolling 2 at zero or one time.
the answer is, 1 - bin(k=0, n=4, r=1/6) - bin(k=1, n=4, r=1/6). This evaluates to about 13%, just like your result (you just computed all three outcomes satisfying the proposition rather than the two that didn’t).
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: The correct answer is D
Step-by-step explanation:
This is an example of "classical probability". Whenever the probability of all events is the same, then the probability is calculated by dividing the number of "favorable events" of total events.
For this problem, the total number of events is the total number of balls, it is 40. The number of favorable events it the number of pink balls, it is 6.
So, the answer is 6/40, which can be written as 3/20.
Number 1 is 2.5, hope this helps a bit!
Radius = 15 feet
circumference = 2 * PI * 15 =
<span>
<span>
<span>
94.25 </span></span></span>feet
the length of the arc is 10 feet
So the angle would equal (10 / 94.25) * 360 =
<span>
<span>
<span>
0.1061007958
</span>
</span>
</span>
* 360 =
=
<span>
<span>
<span>
38.196</span></span></span> degrees
