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irga5000 [103]
2 years ago
13

Jessica’s credit card is on a 30-day billing cycle, and it computes finance charges using the adjusted balance method. The follo

wing table details Jessica’s use of her credit card in the month of October. Date Amount ($) Transaction 10/1 1,240. 55 Beginning balance 10/2 36. 43 Purchase 10/10 75. 00 Payment 10/13 131. 79 Payment 10/20 41. 52 Purchase 10/22 25. 00 Purchase What is Jessica’s adjusted balance for October? a. $1,136. 71 b. $1,033. 76 c. $1,140. 55 d. $1,240. 55.
Business
1 answer:
Tom [10]2 years ago
7 0

The adjusted balance of Jessica for the month of October is $ 1033.76. In this method, monthly payment is deducted from the unlock balance, and purchase is not included in the balance.

<h3>What is the adjusted balance method?</h3>

With the adjusted balance method, the credit card company starts with the balance from the end of the last payment cycle and withdraws any payments made, and adds any credits sent to the account during the current cycle.

In the given information, to calculate the adjusted balance we will deduct the payments made from the beginning balance and ignore the purchases made for the month:

= \$\,1,240.55 - \$\,75.00 - \$\,131.79\\\\= \$\,1033.76

Hence, The correct answer is Option B.

To learn more about adjusted balance method, refer to the link:

brainly.com/question/11355738

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Weiland Co. shows the following information on its 2019 income statement: sales = $162,500; costs = $80,000; other expenses = $3
MrMuchimi

Answer:

a. 2019 Operating cash flow

Welland Co. Operating Cash Flow for 2019

Particular                              Amount $

Sales                                            162500

Cost of goods sold    80000

Other Expenses         3300

Depreciation               9000         <u>92,300</u>

EBIT                                               70200

Less: Taxes                                   22295

Add :Depreciation                         <u>9000</u>

Operating Cash Flow                 $<u>56905</u>

b. Cash flow to creditors

Interest paid                    6500

Add: Loan raised             <u>7700</u>

Cash flow to creditors      <u>14200</u>

c. Cash flow to Stockholders

Dividends Paid                         8150

Less: Net Equity Raised          <u>4500</u>

Cash flow to Stockholders   <u>$3650</u>

d. Change in Net working Capital = Change in Current Assets - Change in  Liabilities

Figures for Current Asset was not given, rather the Net Fixed asset is given $21,100 which is not a current asset.

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Rearden Metal currently has no debt and has an equity cost of capital of 12%. Rearden is considering borrowing fund
Alexxandr [17]

Answer:

Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:

We have to use MM proposition that cost of equity will change itself in such a manner so that it can take care of its debt.

Cost of equity:

= WACC of all equity firm + (WACC of all equity - Cost of debt ) × (Debt -to-equity ratio)

At the beginning, when there was no debt,

WACC = cost of equity = 12 %

Levered cost of equity:

= 12% + ( 12% - 6%) × 0.5

= 15%

Therefore, Rearden's levered cost of equity would be closest to 15%.

4 0
3 years ago
Depreciation Methods Vorst Corporation's schedule of depreciable assets at December 31, 2016, was as follows: Asset Cost Accumul
lions [1.4K]

Answer:

c. $14,400

Explanation:

Double declining depreciation method can be described as an accelerated depreciation technique which charges depreciation expense faster than the straight-line depreciation method, because double declining method obtains its depreciation rate by multiplying the rate of straight-line depreciation method by 2.

From the Vorst Corporation's schedule of appreciable assets at December 31, 2016, the following data are obtained for Asset A:

Cost = $100,000

Accumulated Depreciation = $64,000

Acquisition Date = 2015

Residual value = $20,000

Estimated useful life = 5 years

Therefore, we have:

Straight line method depreciation rate = 1 / Estimated useful life = 0.20, or 20%

Double declining depreciation rate = Straight line method depreciation rate * 2 = 40%

Beginning book value in 2017 = Cost - Accumulated Depreciation = $100,000 - $64,000 = $36,000

Depreciation expense for 2017 = Beginning book value in 2017 * Double declining depreciation rate = $36,000 * 40% = $14,400.

Therefore, Vorst should record $14,400 as depreciation expenses in 2017 for Asset A.

Important End Note:

Under the double declining depreciation method, residual is adjusted for in the last year of the estimated useful life of the asset.

Based on the information for Asset A, its last useful year is 2019 and that is why the residual value is not adjusted for in 2017 above.

6 0
3 years ago
Moe ’s Electric sales vacuum cleaners with a one-year warranty to fix any defects. For the current year, 200 vacuums have been s
vekshin1

Answer:

$900

Explanation:

Given that

Total repair up to end of year = 12

Estimated need to be repaid = 8

Average cost = $45

The computation of warranty expense for the current year is shown below:-

For computing the warranty expense for the current year first we need to find out the total repaired cost which is here below

Total repaired cost = Total repair up to end of year + Estimated need to be repaid

= 12 + 8

= 20

Warranty expense for the current year = Average cost × Total

= $45 × 20

= $900

Therefore for computing the warranty expense for the current year we simply applied the above formula.

5 0
3 years ago
Many people who want to start investing for their future want to start today, which implies an annuity stream that is paid at th
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

b. annuities due

Explanation:

Annuities due -

It refers to the amount which need to be paid at the regular interval of time , just before the beginning of the new phase , is referred to as annuities due .

The most common example of annuities due is rent , which need to be paid after every month in the starting .

Hence , from the given information of the question ,

The correct option is annuities due.

4 0
3 years ago
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