Jessica’s credit card is on a 30-day billing cycle, and it computes finance charges using the adjusted balance method. The follo
1 answer:
The adjusted balance of Jessica for the month of October is $ 1033.76. In this method, monthly payment is deducted from the unlock balance, and purchase is not included in the balance.
<h3>What is the adjusted balance method?</h3>With the adjusted balance method, the credit card company starts with the balance from the end of the last payment cycle and withdraws any payments made, and adds any credits sent to the account during the current cycle.
In the given information, to calculate the adjusted balance we will deduct the payments made from the beginning balance and ignore the purchases made for the month:
Hence, The correct answer is Option B.
To learn more about adjusted balance method, refer to the link:
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Answer:
NPV: $180,285.49
IRR: 21.336%
simple rate of return: 72.13%
Explanation:
6,100,000 investment
contribution margin 3,000,000
fixed expense: <u> 900,000 </u>
EBITA 2,100,000
We will calculate the NPV without the depreciation, as the depreciation is the distribution of the investment cost over the project life.
If we include the depreciation we will be counting the investment amount twice. Entirely at Time 0 and then subtracting on each cash inflow.
We will calculate the NPV at 20% as is the company's discount rate. Even if the current division returns are in 24% as the company accepts project which yields 20%.
C 2,100,000
time 5 years
rate 20% = 20/100 = 0.2
PV $6,280,285.49
NPV = PV of cash inflow - investment
6,280,285.49 - 6,100,000 = 180,285.49
<u>the IRR:</u>
The internal rate of return is the rate at which the NPV of a priject is zero.
We calculate this using excel formula IRR
or a financial calculator
it could also be done with trial and error using the PV tables.
<u>I will explain you in Excel</u>
FIrst, you write the inflow and outflow per year:
-6,100,000
2,100,000
2,100,000
2,100,000
2,100,000
2,100,000
then we write on another cell:
=IRR(
then, select the cells
and press enter
21.336%
<u>the simple rate of return:</u>
(total return - investment) / investment
(2,100,000 x 5 - 6,100,000) / 6,100,000 =
4,400,000 / 6,100,000 = 0.721311475 = 72.13%
- Hey there , ronisha!
Answer:
- Full settlement generally means DISCOUNT ALLOWED.
- Firstly , Read out the question and try to understand. It says we purchased some stuffs of Rs 30000 from the sansee stores and we payed Rs 28000 in full settlement which implies that we received the discount of Rs 30000-28000 i.e Rs 2000.
- You must have known the rules for debit and credit. As we know In case of personal account , Debit : The receiver , We have sansee stores as the receiver so we placed it in debit side.
- Remember: When the question says that the cash is payed through cheque , you should always consider cheque as a bank. Now , In the case of personal account , Credit : The giver. Who's the giver? Of course , bank! So , we placed it in credit side.
- Now , In case of nominal account , Credit : the incomes or gains . The question says we received the discount so obviously it's not expenses. So, We placed discount received in credit side. You must have studied that Every debit should have equal credit. And we're done!
- Hope this helps! Please let me know if you have any questions regarding my answer and also don't hesitate to reach out to me if you need any other help! :)
