Answer:
The simplyfied version would be 19/4
Show of work:
(1/4)^-2 = 4^2
3 × 8^2/3 × 1 = 12
(9/16)^1/2 = 3/4
4^2 - 12 + 3/4
Convert elements to fractions:
-12 × 4 + 3
---------- ----
4 4
Since the denominators are equal combine the fractions:
-12 × 4 + 3
---------------
4
-12 × 4 + 3 = -45
= -45/4
=4^2 - 45/4
4^2 = 16
16 - 45/4
16 × 4 - 45. 16 × 4 - 45
--------- ----- ----------------
4 4. 4
-> 16 × 4 - 45 = 19
= 19/4
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Corresponding angles of two parallel lines are always equal. The angle on "top" of 
corresponds with the angle marked as 
. Therefore, its measure must also be .
Since these two angles form one side of a line which has 180 degrees, we have the following equation:
Combine like terms:
Subtract 15 from both sides:
Divide both sides by 3:
E pi and F pi and (for third one) are correct answers
Answer: it seems to be D, but the equation makes practically no sense!
The value of the factor changes for the different amounts of service years and vacation weeks.
Step-by-step explanation: The equation means that the employee is trying to figure out the value of the "v-factor" for how vacation time is earned.
If you substitute the number of service years into the left side of the "formula" and vacation weeks on the right side, then solve for "v", v(15)=5 you get v= 1/3 or 0.33
If you substitute other numbers, like v(2)=2, so v= 1 then v(30) = 8, v = 4/15 or 0.2667. You see the factor's value decreases. The company is much more generous to to employees with one or two years of service than with the older ones.
