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2 years ago

How would you graph (–4,9)?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Bess [88]2 years ago

5 0

A because down 4 is Negative 4 and right 9 is Positive 9

Irina-Kira [14]2 years ago

3 0

The answer is B. This is right cause the negatives are to the left and positives up.

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The display gives sale prices for 40 houses in Ames, Iowa sold during a recent month. The mean sale price was $203,388 with a st

devlian [24]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

2 years ago

Aaron needs a total of $410 to buy a new bicycle. He has $35 saved. He earns $15 each week delivering newspapers. How many weeks

Ostrovityanka [42]

35+15x=410
410-35=375
375/15=25
He will need to work 25 weeks.

3 0

2 years ago

g A fair coin is tossed 20 times. The number of heads observed is the count X of successes. Give the distribution of X . Choose

Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

We assume that we have a fair coin that is $p(Head)=p(Tails)=0.5$

For this case we define the random variable X as "number of heads observed in 20 times". The distribution for X is given by:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.5)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

We assume that we have a fair coin that is $p(Head)=p(Tails)=0.5$

For this case we define the random variable X as "number of heads observed in 20 times". The distribution for X is given by:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.5)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

3 0

2 years ago

A company has a fleet of 200 vehicles. On average, 50 vehicles per year experience property damage. What is the probability that

ICE Princess25 [194]

Answer:

The probability is $\frac{1}{4}$ or 25%

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states the total number of vehicles, as well as the number of damaged vehicles on a yearly basis. If 50 vehicles in every 200 vehicles per year are damaged, then we can obtain:

Probability of a damaged vehicle in any given year = $\frac{Number of Damaged Vehicles}{Total Number of Vehicles}$

= $\frac{50}{200}$ = $\frac{1}{4}$ or 25%

4 0

2 years ago

Find the area of a circle with a diameter of six. Either enter an exact answer in terms of pie or use 3.14 for pie and enter you

miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

The area of the circle is 28.26

The area of the circle in terms of pi is 9π

Step-by-step explanation:

radius = half of diameter

d = 6

r = 6/2 = 3

To solve this problem we need to use the area formula of a circle:

a = area

r = radius = 3

π = pi

a = π * r²

we replace with the known values

a = π * (3)²

a = π * 9

a = 9π

The area of the circle in terms of pi is 9π

9 * 3.14 = 28.26

The area of the circle is 28.26

4 0

2 years ago