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liubo4ka [24]
4 years ago
11

What is the base 8 representation of the number 11100111(2)

Mathematics
1 answer:
kondor19780726 [428]4 years ago
5 0

Remark

You could convert base two to base 10 and then convert base 10 to base 8. That's the long way. The procedure below is the short way.

Step One

Write the base 2 number in groups of 3 starting from the right and going left

11 100 111

Step Two

Convert the base 2 numbers in groups of 3 to base 8. The largest result will be a 7

11 = 2*1 + 1 = 2 + 1 = 3

100 = 1*2^2 = 4

111 = 1*2^2 + 1*2 + 1 = 7

Step Three

Read the answer going down.

347 is the answer

Answer

347(8) = C


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Line up the decimals 
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Given g(x)=3x+6 on what interval is the function negative
iris [78.8K]

Step-by-step explanation:

A number that is negative is less than 0, so

3x + 6 < 0

3x <  - 6

x <  - 2

So this function is negative, when x is less than -2

4 0
2 years ago
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Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}

And replacing we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99

And now we can solve for \lambda

0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)

ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)

\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}

Where :

f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)

f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

4 0
3 years ago
2
rusak2 [61]

Answer:

(1.13, 7.74) and (-4.13, 18.26)

Step-by-step explanation:

This can be solved in two ways:  mathematically and graphically.

<u>Graphing</u>

Plot both lines and find where they intersect.  See the attachment.

The intersection points are (1.13, 7.74) and (-4.13, 18.26)

<u>Mathematical</u>

y + 2x = 10

y = 10 - 2x

y = 3x² + 7x - 4

10 - 2x = 3x² + 7x - 4

3x² + 9x - 14 = 0

Solve this using the quadratic equation:

x = 1.13 and -4.13

Use these two values of x to find y:

y = 10 - 2x

y = 10 - 2(1.13)

y = 7.74

y = 10 -2x

y = 10 -2(-4.13)

y =  18.26

The two points are:

(1.13, 7.74) and (-4.13, 18.26)

7 0
2 years ago
Mr khan is buys 15 staplers for his office each stapler cost $16.99. What does his final total cos depend upon
ICE Princess25 [194]
The final cost depends on the amount he buys since the 16.99 is the constant. Equation form is 16.99n where n is the amount hence the inconsistent variable
6 0
3 years ago
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