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3 years ago

Together, Sam and Andy have $340. Sam has $8.00 more than Andy. How much money does Sam have?

Mathematics

1 answer:

tatyana61 [14]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Sam have $\$174$

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

x-----> amount of money that Sam has

y-----> amount of money that Andy has

we know that

$x+y=340$ -----> equation A

$x=y+8$ ----> equation B

substitute equation B in equation A

$y+8+y=340$

$2y=340-8$

$y=332/2=\$166$

Find the value of x

$x=166+8=\$174$

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Airline passengers arrive randomly and independently at the passenger-screening facility at a major international airport. The m

Elenna [48]

Answer:

Part a: The probability of no arrivals in a one-minute period is 0.000045.

Part b: The probability of three or fewer passengers arrive in a one-minute period is 0.0103.

Part c: The probability of no arrivals in a 15-second is 0.0821.

Part d: The probability of at least one arrival in a 15-second period is 0.9179.

Step-by-step explanation:

Airline passengers are arriving at an airport independently. The mean arrival rate is 10 passengers per minute. Consider the random variable X to represent the number of passengers arriving per minute. The random variable X follows a Poisson distribution. That is,

$X \sim {\rm{Poisson}}\left( {\lambda = 10} \right)$

The probability mass function of X can be written as,

$P\left( {X = x} \right) = \frac{{{e^{ - \lambda }}{\lambda ^x}}}{{x!}};x = 0,1,2, \ldots$

Substitute the value of λ=10 in the formula as,

$P\left( {X = x} \right) = \frac{{{e^{ - \lambda }}{{\left( {10} \right)}^x}}}{{x!}}$

Part a:

The probability that there are no arrivals in one minute is calculated by substituting x = 0 in the formula as,

$\begin{array}{c}\\P\left( {X = 0} \right) = \frac{{{e^{ - 10}}{{\left( {10} \right)}^0}}}{{0!}}\\\\ = {e^{ - 10}}\\\\ = 0.000045\\\end{array}$

The probability of no arrivals in a one-minute period is 0.000045.

Part b:

The probability mass function of X can be written as,

$P\left( {X = x} \right) = \frac{{{e^{ - \lambda }}{\lambda ^x}}}{{x!}};x = 0,1,2, \ldots$

The probability of the arrival of three or fewer passengers in one minute is calculated by substituting \lambda = 10λ=10 and x = 0,1,2,3x=0,1,2,3 in the formula as,

$\begin{array}{c}\\P\left( {X \le 3} \right) = \sum\limits_{x = 0}^3 {\frac{{{e^{ - \lambda }}{\lambda ^x}}}{{x!}}} \\\\ = \frac{{{e^{ - 10}}{{\left( {10} \right)}^0}}}{{0!}} + \frac{{{e^{ - 10}}{{\left( {10} \right)}^1}}}{{1!}} + \frac{{{e^{ - 10}}{{\left( {10} \right)}^2}}}{{2!}} + \frac{{{e^{ - 10}}{{\left( {10} \right)}^3}}}{{3!}}\\\\ = 0.000045 + 0.00045 + 0.00227 + 0.00756\\\\ = 0.0103\\\end{array}$

The probability of three or fewer passengers arrive in a one-minute period is 0.0103.

Part c:

Consider the random variable Y to denote the passengers arriving in 15 seconds. This means that the random variable Y can be defined as $\frac{X}{4}$

$\begin{array}{c}\\E\left( Y \right) = E\left( {\frac{X}{4}} \right)\\\\ = \frac{1}{4} \times 10\\\\ = 2.5\\\end{array}$

That is,

$Y\sim {\rm{Poisson}}\left( {\lambda = 2.5} \right)$

So, the probability mass function of Y is,

$P\left( {Y = y} \right) = \frac{{{e^{ - \lambda }}{\lambda ^y}}}{{y!}};x = 0,1,2, \ldots$

The probability that there are no arrivals in the 15-second period can be calculated by substituting the value of (λ=2.5) and y as 0 as:

$\begin{array}{c}\\P\left( {X = 0} \right) = \frac{{{e^{ - 2.5}} \times {{2.5}^0}}}{{0!}}\\\\ = {e^{ - 2.5}}\\\\ = 0.0821\\\end{array}$

The probability of no arrivals in a 15-second is 0.0821.

Part d:

The probability that there is at least one arrival in a 15-second period is calculated as,

$\begin{array}{c}\\P\left( {X \ge 1} \right) = 1 - P\left( {X < 1} \right)\\\\ = 1 - P\left( {X = 0} \right)\\\\ = 1 - \frac{{{e^{ - 2.5}} \times {{2.5}^0}}}{{0!}}\\\\ = 1 - {e^{ - 2.5}}\\\end{array}$

$\begin{array}{c}\\ = 1 - 0.082\\\\ = 0.9179\\\end{array}$

The probability of at least one arrival in a 15-second period is 0.9179.

7 0

3 years ago

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Vinvika [58]

Answer:

a) No.

b) Yes.

c) Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) No.

As being without replacement, the probabilities of each color in each draw change depending on the previous draws.

This is best modeled by an hypergeometric distribution.

b) Yes.

As being with replacement, the probabilities for each color is constant.

Also, there are only two colors, so the "success", with probability p, can be associated with the color red, and the "failure", with probability (1-p), with the color blue, for example.

(With more than two colors, it should be "red" and "not red", allowing only two possibilities).

c) Yes.

The answer is binary (Yes or No) and the probabilities are constant, so it can be represented as a binomial experiment.

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2 years ago

Help please with #3

Alenkasestr [34]

Answer: x = 2a over b + c

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Multiply both sides by two. This cancels out 2 and turns a into 2a. It should look like 2a = bx + cx

2) Since both b and c have x’s, we turn it into (b + c)x

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3 years ago

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raketka [301]

L = 4d + 54

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Answer:

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