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Mathematics

2 answers:

Alexxandr [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

The answer is 4/10

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add all marbles in both bags it equals 40. There are 10 pink marbles in both so 40 / 10 is 4 and the denominator would be 10. 4/10

Elden [556K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

The odds of getting a pink marble from the 1st bag are 7/21, .333 repeating, or approximately 33%.

The odds of getting a pink marble from the 2nd bag are 3/19, .158, or approximately 16%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are a total of 21 marbles in the first bag, and only 7 pink marbles. This means that when you reach into the bag, your odds are 7 out of 21 to select a pink marble. When divided, this can be changed to a percent or decimal.

There are a total of 19 marbles in the second bag, and only 3 pink marbles. When you reach into this bag, your odds are 3 out of 19 to select a pink marble. You can also divide this to become a percent or decimal.

Probability is often calculated in fraction or decimal form. If I flip a coin the odds of getting tails are 50% percent because there are only two possible outcomes, and tails is one of them. This gives you the fraction 1/2 (one-half), which is 50% when reduced.

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What is the 6th term of the geometric sequence where a1 = 1,024 and a4 = −16? 1 −0.25 −1 0.25

VLD [36.1K]

The n-th term is given by

$a_n=a_1\cdot r^{(n-1)}\qquad\text{where r is the common ratio}$

Then we can find the common ratio from the given terms.

$\dfrac{a_4}{a_1}=\dfrac{a_1\cdot r^{(4-1)}}{a_1}=r^3=\dfrac{-16}{1024}=\left(\dfrac{-1}{4}\right)^3\\\\r=\dfrac{-1}{4}\\\\a_6=1024\left(\dfrac{-1}{4}\right)^5=-1$