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DaniilM [7]
2 years ago
9

HURRY I'LL GIVE YOU BRAINLYST At lunch, Allan drank 2 pints of chocolate milk. How many fluid ounces is this equal to?

Mathematics
2 answers:
noname [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

32 flucold correct

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark me as brainlist please

prisoha [69]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

2 pints = <em><u>32 fluid ounces. </u></em>

Formula - Multiply the volume value by 16.

1 pint = 16 fluid ounces, so 2 pints will = 32.

*Multiply by 16*

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Slope is 2 and<br> y-intercept is (0,3).<br> Y= what
Daniel [21]
Y would be 3 then.
Beacuse the equation is y=Mx+c
So if you substitute the values it will be
y=2(0)+3
Y=0+3
Y=3
5 0
3 years ago
rectangular stained glass window is 2 feet by 4 feet. A clear glass border is constructed around the stained glass window. The w
Mice21 [21]
S=2(4x+2x)+4x^2=4x^2+12x

4x^2+12x=7
4x^2+12x-7=0
D=12^2-4x4x(-7)=256
X1=(-12-16)/(2x4)=-3.5 impossible
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7 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?
astraxan [27]
ANSWER


The value of the expression is
- 1


EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
{i}^{2}


The expression given to us is,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}


We use the fact that
{i}^{2}  =  - 1
to simplify the above expression.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{3}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{4}


This implies,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}


We substitute to obtain,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  - 1 \times  - 1  \times  - 1\times  - 1 \times  - 1


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  1 \times   1  \times  - 1 =  - 1


Method 2: Use indices to solve.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}



This implies that,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{10}




{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  (  {{i}^{2}} )^{5}


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  (   - 1 )^{5}   =  - 1


8 0
4 years ago
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Nimfa-mama [501]
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Nezavi [6.7K]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 18 by 4

5 0
3 years ago
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