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leonid [27]
3 years ago
8

A car is traveling a rate of 120 kilometers per hour. What is the cars rate in mile per hour? How many miles will the car travel

in 2 hours? In your computation assume that 1 mike is equal to 1.6 kilometers
Mathematics
2 answers:
Elden [556K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

120 km/ 1 hour

We need to convert kilometers into miles, so given the information below (1 mile = 1.6 km), we divide 120 km by 1.6 km because 1.6 km is equivalent to 1 mile.

120km/1.6km

= 75 miles, so therefore the cars rate will be:-

75 miles/ 1 hour

To see how many miles are in <u>2 hours</u>, we must multiply the unit rate(75 miles/ 1 hour) by 2.

75 miles/ 1 hour x 2/2 hours

75 x 2

______ = 150/2, so the car will travel 150 miles in 2 hours.

 1 x 2

AleksandrR [38]3 years ago
3 0

Step-by-step explanation:

120 ÷ 1.6 = 75.

so 75 miles per hour.

75 × 2 = 150

therefore 150 miles in 2 hours

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The Coast Starlight Amtrak train runs from Seattle to Los Angeles. The mean travel time from one stop to the next on the Coast S
Goshia [24]

Solution :

a).

Given :

R = 0.636, $S_x = 99$, $S_y=113, M_x=108, M_y=129$

Here R = correlation between the two variables

        $S_x , S_y$ =  sample standard deviations of the distance and travel time between the two train stops, respectively.

      $M_x, M_y$ = means of the distance and travel between two train stops respectively.

The slope of the regression line is given by :

Regression line, b_1  $=R \times \left(\frac{S_y}{S_x}\right)$

                            $=0.636 \times \left(\frac{113}{99}\right)$

                            = 0.726

Therefore, the slope of the regression line b_1 is 0.726

The equation of the regression line is given by :

$\overline {y} = b_0+b_1 \overline x$

The regression line also has to pass through the two means. That is, it has to pass through points (108, 129). Substituting these values in the equation of the regression line, we can get the value of the line y-intercept.

The y-intercept of the regression line $b_0$ is given by :

$b_0=M_y-(b_1 \times M_x)$

  = 129 - (0.726 x 108)

  = 50.592

Therefore, the equation of the line is :

Travel time = 20.592 + 0.726 x distance

b).\text{ The slope of the line predicts that it will require 0.726 minutes} for each additional mile travelled.

The intercept of the line, $b_0$ = 0.529 can be seen as the time when the distance travelled is zero. It does not make much sense in this context because  it seems we have travelled zero  distance in 50.529 minutes, but we could interpret it as that the wait time after which we start travelling and calculating the distance travelled and the additional time required per mile. Or we could view the intercept value as the time it takes to walk to the train station before we board the train. So this is a fixed quantity that will be added to travel time. It all depends on the interpretation.

c). $R^2=0.404$

This means that the model accounts for around 40.4% variation in the travel time.

3 0
3 years ago
-7= 4+y <br> solve for y<br><br> what is the answer? please help, thank you.
vekshin1

Answer:

-11

Step-by-step explanation:

y=-7-4= -11

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the measure of ∠B?
DochEvi [55]
M<B = 90 - 38
m<B = 52
answer is B. 52
8 0
3 years ago
What is the equation for the linear model in the scatterplot obtained by choosing the two points closest to the line
Tom [10]

Answer:

y= -3.5x+57.5.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The probability that two people have the same birthday in a room of 20 people is about 41.1%. It turns out that
salantis [7]

Answer:

a) Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we know that:

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.411)

This random variable represent that two people have the same birthday in just one classroom

b) We can find first the probability that one or more pairs of people share a birthday in ONE class. And we can do this:

P(X\geq 1 ) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability:

P(X=0) = (20C0) (0.411)^0 (1-0.411)^{20-0}=0.0000253

And then:

P(X\geq 1 ) = 1-P(X

And since we want the probability in the 3 classes we can assume independence and we got:

P= 0.99997^3 = 0.9992

So then the probability that one or more pairs of people share a birthday in your three classes is approximately 0.9992

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Solution to the problem

Part a

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we know that:

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.411)

This random variable represent that two people have the same birthday in just one classroom

Part b

We can find first the probability that one or more pairs of people share a birthday in ONE class. And we can do this:

P(X\geq 1 ) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability:

P(X=0) = (20C0) (0.411)^0 (1-0.411)^{20-0}=0.0000253

And then:

P(X\geq 1 ) = 1-P(X

And since we want the probability in the 3 classes we can assume independence and we got:

P= 0.99997^3 = 0.9992

So then the probability that one or more pairs of people share a birthday in your three classes is approximately 0.9992

4 0
4 years ago
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