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Ivanshal [37]
2 years ago
12

In a trapezoid the sum of the bases is 28 and the area is 84.

Mathematics
1 answer:
oee [108]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:   If you sketch this out, you should be able to convince yourself that if you drew a line parallel to the bases and halfway between them, and a vertical at the end of that line, there would be an extra triangle on the longer base that would just fit into the space at the end of the shorter base, if you cut and pasted it.

You should also be able to convince yourself by what you know about similarity that the length of that parallel halfway line is just halfway between the lengths of the bases (you can add them and divide by two).

So your trapezoid (trapezium, we call ’em this side of the pond) has the same area as a rectangle with an altitude equal to the trapezoid’s and a width equal to the sum of those bases divided by two. And since you know about rectangles, you’re home and dry. I suggest you do the sketch, fill in the numbers, and then you’ve completed a model piece of homework that should earn full marks and the teacher’s approval.

Step-by-step explanation:

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The similarity ratio of two similar polygons is 2:5. What is the ratio of their areas
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

4 : 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the ratio of 2 similar figures = a : b, then

ratio of areas = a² : b²

Given the similarity ratio = 2 : 5, then

ratio of areas = 2² : 5² = 4 : 25

6 0
3 years ago
Jeanine baker makes floral arrangements. She has 12 different cut flowers and plans to use 5 of them. How many different selecti
Alona [7]
Assuming that the order of selection is not important, this is a question of number of ways. In other words, the combination should be computed. That is,

Number of ways of selection 5 flowers = 12C5 = 12!/{5!*(12-5)!} = 12!/{5!*7!} = 792

Therefore, there are 792 ways in which 5 flowers can be selected from the available 12 flowers.
4 0
3 years ago
on Monday joe bought 10 cups of coffee and 5 doughnuts for his his office at the cost of $16.50. It turns out that the doughnuts
AfilCa [17]

X= be coffee

Y=be donuts


Set up equations


10x+5y=16.50

5x+10y=14.25


Now multiply first equation by -2 to get a negative


(-2)10x+5y(-2)=16.50(-2)


-20x-10y=-33


Now put both equations to solve for x


-20x-10y=-33

5x+10y=14.25

___________

-15x. = -18.75


Now divide -15 bith sides to get x alone


X= -18.75/-15


X= 1.25



The cost of each coffee cup$1.25



7 0
3 years ago
PLS HELP QUICK!
nikklg [1K]

Answer:

3 x 21

20 x 4 tenths

21 x thirteenth

please mark me as brainlist please

3 0
2 years ago
Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
3 years ago
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