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Romashka [77]
2 years ago
10

I AM GIVING AWAY BRAINLIEST AND POINTS TO WHOEVER ANSWERED! PLEASE HELP!

Mathematics
2 answers:
marin [14]2 years ago
8 0

ANSWER: The four angles are:

136.4, 43.6, 136.4, and 43.6.

Ivan2 years ago
4 0

Draw a rhombus with the diagonals.

4 right triangles are formed.

The intersection of the diagonals of a rhombus form 90 degree (right) angles (property of a rhombus).

The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other. This means that they cut each other in half.

So, each of the right triangles have one side = 1, one side = 2.5 and the hypotenuse = unknown (sides of the

rhombus).

Triangle 1. ABC

side a = 2.5, side b = 1

tan A = a/b = 2.5/1 = 2.5

tan A = 2.5

tan 68.2 deg = 2.5

Since, angle C = 90 and angle A = 68.2

angle B = 21.8 deg. (180 - (90 + 68.2))

Since the diagonals bisect angles in each corner of a rhombus (property of a rhombus), therefore, one corner angle is 68.2 + 68.2 = 136.4 deg. and the same side other corner angle is 21.8 + 21.8 = 43.6 deg.

Adjacent sides (ones next to each other) of a rhombus are supplementary. This means that their measures add up to 180 degrees.

Therefore, the opposite corners are

180 - 136.4 = 43.6 and

180 - 43.6 = 136.4.

So, the four angles are,

<h2>136.4, 43.6, 136.4, and 43.6</h2>

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------"The beautiful thing about learning is that no one can take it away from you"

B.B.King

Thanks!

Have a great day!

Mark me brainliest too!

~ms115~

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Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

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b)

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Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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