So the “certain number” will be S.
Since 2width + 2length, the first part would be 2 times 2 which is 4
The length is S - 3
We then have to multiply this by 2
So it is 2(S-3) which is 2S-6
So the answer is 4+2S-6 which is 2S-2
750 bikes would be sold for $350
Let x represent the number of bikes sold per month and y represent the price.
550 bikes are sold at a price of $250, this can be represented by (550, 250). Also, 750 bikes is sold at a price of $150, hence it is represented by (750, 150)
A linear function is represented by:
y = mx + b
m is the slope, b is the y intercept.
Therefore the function is:

The number of bikes sold for $350 is:
350 = (1/2)x - 25
x = 750
Therefore 750 bikes would be sold for $350
Find out more at: brainly.com/question/13911928
I think its true but i may be wrong
The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability
- The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
- The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
- The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>
From the question,
- Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
- 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective
From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two
So, the probability is:
p = 23/30
p = 0.767
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>
From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none
So, the probability is:
p = 0/30
p = 0
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>
The probability of hitting a headpin is:
p = 90%
The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:
P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)
So, we have:
P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1
P(4) = 0.3281
Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
Read more about probabilities at:
brainly.com/question/25870256
There is no picture with this so I don’t know how to answer this