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viva [34]
2 years ago
13

You roll a 6-sided die. What is P(prime)? Write your answer as a percentage.

Mathematics
1 answer:
sladkih [1.3K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

Finding the probability of a single die roll requires little effort.

First, remember that by definition, a prime is an integer with precisely two factors: 1 and the number itself (which is why 1 does not qualify: it has only one factor). The numbers from 6 on down that fit the bill are 2,3,5. Since there are six sides, your answer is:

P(prime) = 3/6  = 1/2  = 50%

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Answer:

impossible?

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Help Me Plz Thanks!!
Vika [28.1K]
Q-4.8=-9
-4.8 -4.8

q=-4.2

I think
8 0
3 years ago
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To graph y = -cosx, _____.
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

reflect y = cos x over the x-axis

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5 0
4 years ago
Someone help plz? I need some help
Virty [35]

Answer:

AB =10.8166538264

AB  \approx10.8

Step-by-step explanation:

A( - 5,6),B(1, - 3)

A( - 5,6),B(1, - 3) \\ A( { x  }_{ 1  }   , { y }_{ 1  }   ),B( { x  }_{ 2  }   , { y  }_{ 2  }   )

AB =  \sqrt{(  { { x  }_{ 2  }  -  { x  }_{ 1  }   ) }^{2} +  {( { y  }_{ 2  } -  { y  }_{ 1  }  )    }^{2}    }

AB  =  \sqrt{ {(1 -  - 5)}^{2}  +  {( - 3 - 6)}^{2} }

AB =  \sqrt{ {(1 + 5)}^{2}  +  { (- 3 - 6)}^{2} }

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AB =  \sqrt{36 + 81}

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7 0
3 years ago
Clyde simplified ( j^-8)^-2
Lina20 [59]

ANSWER

{j}^{16}

EXPLANATION

The given expression is

( {j}^{ - 8} )^{ - 2}

To simplify this expression, we use the law of exponents.

Recall that:

{(a}^{m} )^{n}  =  {a}^{mn}

We need to multiply the exponents to get:

( {j}^{ - 8} )^{ - 2}  = {j}^{ - 8 \times - 2}

( {j}^{ - 8} )^{ - 2}  = {j}^{16}

Therefore after simplification, Clyde got:

{j}^{16}

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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