It would be because of Non selling activities
Answer:
The important thing to remember here is that the interest is compounded semi annually, which means twice a year. When the 1st interest is compounded, the second interest is calculated on that new amount.
(11,500 + (11,500×6%)) = $ 12,190
(12,190 + (12190×6%)) = $ 12921.40
Explanation:
Answer:
The profit that they keep to reinvest in the business is recorded as D : retained earnings.
Explanation:
Retained earnings (RE) is the amount of net income left over for the business after it has paid out dividends to its shareholders.
Answer: $2,000 favorable
Explanation:
Total variable overhead variance = Budgeted variable overhead - Actual total variable overhead
Budgeted variable overhead = Budgeted machine hours allowed for actual output * Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour
= 30,000 * 2.50
= $75,000
Total variable overhead variance = 75,000 - 73,000
= $2,000 favorable
Favorable because the actual amount was less than the budgeted one.
Answer:
Return on company's stock = 15.6%
Explanation:
<u><em>The capital asset pricing model (CAPM)</em></u><em> relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c</em>
Using the CAPM , the expected return on a asset is given as follows:
E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)
E(r) =? , Rf- 6%, Rm- 14%, β- 1.2
E(r) = 6% + 1.2× (14- 6)%
= 6% + 9.6%
= 15.6%
Return on company's stock = 15.6%
