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nikdorinn [45]
3 years ago
13

Order the bond types below from lowest to highest risk of default.

Business
2 answers:
andrew11 [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

????

Explanation:

Ymorist [56]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

According to the risk of default from lowest to highest:

1. U.S. Treasury bonds.

2. Corporate bonds.

3. Junk bonds

Explanation:

Bonds are ways through which a governments and corporations are able to raise money in-order to finance the big projects.

It is issued to the public through a mapped out auction based in months or years validity. <em>And, by buying a bond, you're giving the issuer a loan, and they agree to pay you back the face value of the loan on a specific date, and to pay you periodic interest payments.</em>

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Alyeska Services Company, a division of a major oil company, provides various services to the operators of the North Slope oil f
Nady [450]

Answer:

1. The margin for Alyeska Services Company: 27.37%

2. The turnover for Alyeska Services Company= 49.45%

3. The return on investment (ROI) for Alyeska Services Company = 13.54%

Explanation:

Please find the below for detailed explanations and calculations:

1. The margin for Alyeska Services Company = Net operating income / Sales = 4,900,000/17,900,000 = 27,37%;

2. The turnover for Alyeska Services Company= Sales / Average operating income = 17,900,000/36,200,000 =  49.45%;

3. The return on investment (ROI) for Alyeska Services Company = Net operating income/Average operating income= 4,900,000/36,200,000=  13.54%

7 0
3 years ago
Botosan Factory has budgeted factory overhead for the year at $717,474, and budgeted direct labor hours for the year are 364,200
Mila [183]

Answer:

$652,858

Explanation:

Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted Overheads ÷ Budgeted Activity

                                                    = $717,474 ÷  364,200

                                                    = $1.97 per direct labor hour

Allocated overheads = Predetermined overhead rate x Actual Activity

                                    = $1.97 x  331,400 direct labor hours

                                     = $652,858

therefore,

The overhead allocated for May is $652,858.

6 0
3 years ago
All of the following statements about the economic philosophy in Texas are true EXCEPT
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

The answer is: B) The median wage in Texas is much higher than the national average. THIS STATEMENT IS FALSE.

Explanation:

If you take the facts from the Census ACS 1 year survey, the median household income in Texas is $59,206 (2017 data) and a median hourly wage of $17,06 (2016 data from the Bureau of Labor Statistics).

If you compare those numbers with the national average, the US median household income is $60,336 (the national average is $1,130 higher than the Texas median household income). Historically the Texas median household income has been lower than the national average.

If we consider the median hourly wage in Texas of $17,06 (2016 data) and we compare to the national hourly wage of $17,81 (2016 data from the Bureau of Labor Statistics) we can clearly see it´s also lower. The top ten states with the highest median hourly wage are: Alaska, Massachusetts, Connecticut, Washington, Maryland, New York, New Jersey, California, Minnesota, Hawaii, with hourly wages ranging from $22.68 to $19.24

7 0
3 years ago
Allure Company manufactures and distributes two products, M and XY. Overhead costs are currently allocated using the number of u
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the allocation rates:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Production setups= (73,000 / 30)= $2,433.33 per setup

Material handling= (49,000 / 91)= $538.46 per number of part  

Packaging costs= (246,000 / 156,000)= $1.58 per unit

<u>Now, we need to allocate costs to Product XY:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Production setups= 2,433.33*18= 43,799.94

Material handling= 538.46*23= 12,384.58

Packaging costs= 1.58*60,000= $94,800

Total allocated costs= $150,984.52

<u>Finally, per unit basis:</u>

Unitary cost= 150,984.52 /60,000= $0.27

8 0
3 years ago
Computing first-year depreciation and book value At the beginning of the year, Austin Airlines purchased a used airplane for $33
irakobra [83]

Answer:

1. a. $560,000

  b. $13,400,000

  c. $7,700,000

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense and the year end book value for the first year is shown below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($33,500,000 - $5,500,000) ÷ (5 years)

= ($28,000,000) ÷ (5 years)  

= $560,000

In this, the depreciation expense is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= Percentage ÷ useful life

= 100 ÷ 5

= 20%

Now the rate is double So, 40%

In year 1, the original cost is $33,500,000, so the depreciation is $13,400,000 after applying the 40% depreciation rate

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)  

= ($33,500,000 - $5,500,000) ÷ ($4,000,000 miles)

= ($28,000,000) ÷ ($4,000,000 miles)  

= $7 per miles

Now for the first year, it would be  

= Expected miles in first year × depreciation per miles

= 1,100,000 miles × $7 per miles

= $7,700,000

Now the book value would be

Straight-line method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  -  $560,000

= $32,940,000

Double-declining balance method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  - $13,400,000

= $20,100,000

Units-of-production method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  - $7,700,000

= $25,800,000

5 0
3 years ago
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