Check the picture below.
![\stackrel{\textit{\Large Areas}}{\stackrel{triangle}{\cfrac{1}{2}(6)(6)}~~ + ~~\stackrel{semi-circle}{\cfrac{1}{2}\pi (3)^2}}\implies \boxed{18+4.5\pi} \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \stackrel{pythagorean~theorem}{CA^2 = AB^2 + BC^2\implies} CA=\sqrt{AB^2 + BC^2} \\\\\\ CA=\sqrt{6^2+6^2}\implies CA=\sqrt{6^2(1+1)}\implies CA=6\sqrt{2} \\\\\\ \stackrel{\textit{\Large Perimeters}}{\stackrel{triangle}{(6+6\sqrt{2})}~~ + ~~\stackrel{semi-circle}{\cfrac{1}{2}2\pi (3)}}\implies \boxed{6+6\sqrt{2}+3\pi}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cstackrel%7B%5Ctextit%7B%5CLarge%20Areas%7D%7D%7B%5Cstackrel%7Btriangle%7D%7B%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%286%29%286%29%7D~~%20%2B%20~~%5Cstackrel%7Bsemi-circle%7D%7B%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5Cpi%20%283%29%5E2%7D%7D%5Cimplies%20%5Cboxed%7B18%2B4.5%5Cpi%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5B-0.35em%5D%20~%5Cdotfill%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%5Cstackrel%7Bpythagorean~theorem%7D%7BCA%5E2%20%3D%20AB%5E2%20%2B%20BC%5E2%5Cimplies%7D%20CA%3D%5Csqrt%7BAB%5E2%20%2B%20BC%5E2%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%20CA%3D%5Csqrt%7B6%5E2%2B6%5E2%7D%5Cimplies%20CA%3D%5Csqrt%7B6%5E2%281%2B1%29%7D%5Cimplies%20CA%3D6%5Csqrt%7B2%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%5Cstackrel%7B%5Ctextit%7B%5CLarge%20Perimeters%7D%7D%7B%5Cstackrel%7Btriangle%7D%7B%286%2B6%5Csqrt%7B2%7D%29%7D~~%20%2B%20~~%5Cstackrel%7Bsemi-circle%7D%7B%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D2%5Cpi%20%283%29%7D%7D%5Cimplies%20%5Cboxed%7B6%2B6%5Csqrt%7B2%7D%2B3%5Cpi%7D)
notice that for the perimeter we didn't include the segment BC, because the perimeter of a figure is simply the outer borders.
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer:
the answer to the question is 5
Answer:
a is parallel to d
a and d are parallel, and are perpendicular to c and d (those are parallel to each other)
RESULT
They are parallel
Step-by-step explanation:
