I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
Hello!
The 19th and 24th Amendments were specifically written to increase participation of minorities in the U.S. government.
The 19th Amendment reserves women's suffrage rights. This means that they have the right to vote and participate in the government.
The 24th Amendment states that people cannot be denied their right to vote for not paying poll taxes. In the past, African Americans were required to pay poll taxes in order to vote. This restricted their rights because many could not afford to pay the taxes. The 24th Amendment outlawed this rule.
I hope this helps you! Have a fantastic day!
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During the Paleolithic, hominins grouped together in small societies such as bands, and subsisted by gathering plants and fishing, hunting or scavenging wild animals. The Paleolithic is characterized by the use of knapped stone tools, although at the time humans also used wood and bone tools.