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2 years ago

Convert 4.08 to a fraction. Help me please.

Mathematics

2 answers:

Travka [436]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

4 8/10

Step-by-step explanation:

Since 4 is in the ones place, that means it will be a mixed fraction. Next, make the 0.8 into a fraction by making it into 80/100. Simplify, and then you will get 8/10. That's how you get 4.08 into 4 8/10.

Fofino [41]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

4/8

Step-by-step explanation:0.n is = to 10. 4 is the numerator. So it would be 4/8

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a certain pharmaceutical company know that, on average 4% of a certain type of pill has an ingredient that is below the minimum

FinnZ [79.3K]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0% probability that fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills will be acceptable.

For each pill, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is acceptable, or it is not. The probability of a pill being acceptable is independent of any other pill, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

The parameters are:

x is the number of successes.

n is the number of trials.

p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

The sample has 20 pills, hence $n = 20$ .

100 - 4 = 96% are acceptable, hence $p = 0.96$

The probability that fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills will be acceptable is:

$P(X < 5) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{20,0}.(0.96)^{0}.(0.04)^{20} = 0$

$P(X = 1) = C_{20,1}.(0.96)^{1}.(0.04)^{19} = 0$

$P(X = 2) = C_{20,2}.(0.96)^{2}.(0.04)^{18} = 0$

$P(X = 3) = C_{20,3}.(0.96)^{3}.(0.04)^{17} = 0$

$P(X = 4) = C_{20,4}.(0.96)^{4}.(0.04)^{16} = 0$

0% probability that fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills will be acceptable.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377

8 0

2 years ago

When doctors prescribe medicine, they must consider how the drug’s effectiveness declines as time passes. If each hour a drug is

Dima020 [189]

Answer:

The total time for the initial dose of 500 mg to reach a level of 150 mg is approximately 11 hours and 27 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Initial dose = 500 mg

Let's calculate the effectiveness of the drug hour by hour, this way:

After 1 hour: 90% of 500 = 450 mg

After 2 hours: 90% of 450 = 405 mg

After 3 hours: 90% of 405 = 364.5 mg

After 4 hours: 90% of 364.5 = 328.05 mg

After 5 hours: 90% of 328.05 = 295.25 mg

After 6 hours: 90% of 295.25 = 265.73 mg

After 7 hours: 90% of 265.73 = 239.16 mg

After 8 hours: 90% of 239.16 = 215.24 mg

After 9 hours: 90% of 215.24 = 193.72 mg

After 10 hours: 90% of 193.72 = 174.35 mg

After 11 hours: 90% of 174.35 = 156.92 mg

After 12 hours: 90% of 156.92 = 141.23 mg

Difference between 11 and 12 hours: 156.92 - 141.23 = 15.7 mg

Difference per minute between 11 and 12 hours: 15.7/60 = 0.262 mg

Time to reach a level of 150 mg in minutes after 11 hours = (156.92-150)/0.262

Time to reach a level of 150 mg in minutes after 11 hours = 26.4

The total time for the initial dose of 500 mg to reach a level of 150 mg is approximately 11 hours and 27 minutes

4 0

3 years ago

Write this trinomial in factored form 2a^2 +7a+3

EleoNora [17]

Answer:

(2a + 1)(a + 3) = 2a² + 7a + 3

8 0

3 years ago

A triangular bandana has an area of 74 square inches. The height of the triangle is 9 1 4 inches. Enter and solve an equation to

Lilit [14]

Hi there!

The formula for the area of a triangle is A = 1/2(b x h). Using the information provided, all we have to do is plug in what we know and solve!

WORK:
74 = 1/2(b x 9.14)
148 = b x 9.14
b = 16.2 inches (approximately)

Hope this helps!! :)

6 0

3 years ago

What would be the image of Point B(3, 2) after the following transformations have been applied:

Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

(9,6)

Step-by-step explanation:

(6,9)

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6 0

3 years ago

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