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dem82 [27]
2 years ago
12

Hattie has 2 red toys and 3 blue toys. What is the probability she will play with a blue toy?

Mathematics
1 answer:
kykrilka [37]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

If she have 2 red toys and 3 blue toys, then she have 5 toys.

She can take one of 3 blue toys from 5 toys (I hope that you know what I mean)

Her chance is 3/5 to take the blue one

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A staircase has an angle of elevation of 28° anı
AveGali [126]

Hi there!

We can use right-triangle trigonometry to solve.

We are given the HYPOTENUSE and ADJACENT sides, so we must use cosine in this instance.

cosθ = Adjacent/Hypotenuse

We can plug in what is given:

cos(28) = A/17

Solve for 'A':

17cos(28) = <u>15.01 ft</u>

5 0
2 years ago
Find the missing side of the figure that was scaled up from the original
Varvara68 [4.7K]
What is that other number to the right of the red and I can answer it
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16. A telemarketer makes six phone calls per hour and is able to make a sale on 30% of these contacts. During the next two hours
Reika [66]

Answer:

a) 23.11% probability of making exactly four sales.

b) 1.38% probability of making no sales.

c) 16.78% probability of making exactly two sales.

d) The mean number of sales in the two-hour period is 3.6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each phone call, there are only two possible outcomes. Either a sale is made, or it is not. The probability of a sale being made in a call is independent from other calls. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A telemarketer makes six phone calls per hour and is able to make a sale on 30% of these contacts. During the next two hours, find:

Six calls per hour, 2 hours. So

n = 2*6 = 12

Sale on 30% of these calls, so p = 0.3

a. The probability of making exactly four sales.

This is P(X = 4).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.3)^{4}.(0.7)^{8} = 0.2311

23.11% probability of making exactly four sales.

b. The probability of making no sales.

This is P(X = 0).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

1.38% probability of making no sales.

c. The probability of making exactly two sales.

This is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

16.78% probability of making exactly two sales.

d. The mean number of sales in the two-hour period.

The mean of the binomia distribution is

E(X) = np

So

E(X) = 12*0.3 = 3.6

The mean number of sales in the two-hour period is 3.6.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the solution to this system of linear equations?
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

I got (1,2).

Step-by-step explanation:

Process of elimination:

Multiply the second equation by 3 to get same terms, subtract and solve for Y to get 2.

Plug 2 into second equation for Y to get x=1

(1,2)

6 0
2 years ago
Please answerrrrrr
Alona [7]

Answer:

x= -48 y =48

Step-by-step explanation:

-46 and 2 is -48 numbers away

3 0
2 years ago
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