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Annette [7]
2 years ago
6

______ are used to accumulate and report the effects of each different business activity separately rather than combining the va

rious types of activities together.
Business
1 answer:
Tresset [83]2 years ago
3 0

The accounting item that is used to perform the activity of accumulating and reporting transactional effects is <u>Accounts</u>.

<h3>What is an Account?</h3>
  • This is record that allows for the recording of business activities.
  • Is shown in ledger books depending on which general activity it relates to.

Accounts allow us to accumulate information related to a business transaction in such a way that all information related to that transaction are located in the same place.

In conclusion, this is an account.

Find out more on accounts at brainly.com/question/24702831.

You might be interested in
What is the difference between income and cash flow?
Deffense [45]
Its B. or C. 
                    If you have any other questions, please contact me on Brainly.com and I will be happy to answer. 
                -Diane.
3 0
4 years ago
An investment costs $152,000 and has projected cash inflows of $71,800, $86,900, and −$11,200 for Years 1 to 3, respectively. If
Radda [10]

Answer:

No; The IRR is less than the required return.

Explanation:

Calculation  of IRR is given by the formula: Lr x NPVL / NPVL - NPVH x (Hr - Lr)

where

Lr  = Lower rate of discount

Hr = Higher rate of discount

NPVH = NPV at Higher discount rate

NPVL = NPV at Lower discount rate

Assume a low discount rate of 1% and a high rate of 20%

<u>NPV at 1%</u>

<u>Particulars        Year 0  Year 1    Year 2   Year 3</u>

Cash flows       152,000  71,800  86,900  (11,200)

DCF 1%                 1           0.99    0.98       0.97

Present values (152,000) 71,082 85,162   (10,864)

NPV = $6,620

<u />

<u>NPV at 20%</u>

<u>Particulars        Year 0  Year 1    Year 2   Year 3</u>

Cash flows       152,000  71,800  86,900  (11,200)

DCF 20%                 1           0.83    0.69       0.58

Present values (152,000) 59,594 59,961   (6,496)

NPV = ($38,941)

Substituting values in the IRR formula we have:

1% x [($6,620 / ($6620 - (38,941))] x (20% - 1%) = 2.06%

Therefore we reject the project because it gives an IRR lower than the required rate of return of 15.5%

8 0
3 years ago
If overhead is applied to individual jobs at a rate of 50% of direct labor costs incurred per job, and $50,000 in direct materia
barxatty [35]

The total cost applied to the job is $87,500 when the direct materials are $50,000, the cost of direct labor is $25,000 and the overhead cost is 50 % of direct labor.

<h3>What is meant by total cost?</h3>

Total cost means the combined cost of materials, human labor, and the overheads incurred in the process of production.

Given values:

Cost of direct materials: $50,000

Cost of direct labor: $25,000

Cost of overheads: $12,500 ($25,000 X 50%)

Computation of total job cost:

\rm Total \rm\ Job \rm\ Cost=\rm\ Cost \rm\ of \rm\ Direct \rm\ Materials+\rm\ Cost \rm\ of \rm\ Direct \rm\ Labor+\rm\ Cost \rm\ of \rm\ Overheads\\\rm Total \rm\ Job \rm\ Cost=\$50,000 + \$25,000 + \$12,500\\\rm Total \rm\ Job \rm\ Cost=\$87,500

Therefore, when the direct materials are $50,000, the direct labor is $25,000 and the overhead cost is $12,500, then the total cost of the job is $87,500.

Learn more about the overhead cost in the related link:

brainly.com/question/14545063

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
Santa Corporation issued a bond on January 1 of this year with a face value of $1,000. The bond's coupon rate is 6 percent and i
Marianna [84]

Answer:

Santa Corporation

a. The bond's issue price = $901 (PV of all cash inflows).

b. The bond sold at a DISCOUNT.  The discount was $99 (equal to total amortization).

c. Bonds payable at the end of:

Year 1 = $931

Year 2 = $964

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Face value of bond = $1,000

Coupon rate = 6%

Interest payment = Annually on December 31

Bond's maturity period = 3 years

Annual market rate of interest = 10%

N (# of periods)  3

I/Y (Interest per year)  10

PMT (Periodic Payment)  60

FV (Future Value)  1000

Results

PV = $900.53 = $901

Sum of all periodic payments $180.00

Total Interest $279.47

Schedule

Date                           Cash Paid   Interest Expense  Amortization  Balance

January 1, Year 1                                                                                 $901

December 31, Year 1     $60                     $90                $30              931

December 31, Year 2      60                        93                  33             964

December 31, Year 3      60                        96                  36          1,000

5 0
3 years ago
A 27-year U.S. Treasury bond with a face value of $1,000 pays a coupon of 6.00% (3.000% of face value every six months). The rep
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

(A) $1,055.35  (B) $2,180.53  (C) $780.07  (D) $412.08.

Explanation:

The tenor of the bond is 27 years i.e. (27 * 2=) 54 periods of 6 months each (n).

Face Value (F) = $1,000

Coupon (C) = 6% annually = 3% semi annually = (3% * 1000 face value) = $30.

The Present Value (PV) of the Bond is computed as follows.

PV of recurring coupon payments + PV of face value at maturity

= \frac{C(1-(1+r)^{-n}) }{r} + \frac{F}{(1+r)^{n}}

A) Yield = 5.6% annually = 2.8% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.028)^{-54}) }{0.028} + \frac{1,000}{(1.028)^{54}}

= 830.25 + 225.10

= $1,055.35.

B) Yield = 1% annually = 0.5% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.005)^{-54}) }{0.005} + \frac{1,000}{(1.005)^{54}}

= 1,416.64 + 763.89

= $2,180.53.

C) Yield = 8% annually = 4% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.04)^{-54}) }{0.04} + \frac{1,000}{(1.04)^{54}}

= 659.79 + 120.28

= $780.07.

D) Yield = 15% annually = 7.5% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.075)^{-54}) }{0.075} + \frac{1,000}{(1.075)^{54}}

= 391.95 + 20.13

= $412.08.

4 0
3 years ago
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