<span>Operational management manages activities that are involved in creating value by producing goods and services and distributing them to customers.
</span>Effectiveness is a term used in operational management to describe using resources to create value by providing customers with goods and services that offer a better relationship between price and perceived benefits.
Answer:
Option D) $54.400
Explanation:
When a company disposes a capital asset, the cost of the asset it's the remanent value, that is the difference between the original cost less the accumulated depreciation, in this case $170.000 minus $109.000, remanent value is $61.000.
This value it's the cost of sale and the price it's $50.000 , the result of this transaction it's a loss of ($11.000) so the after-tax cash inflow it's ($4.400).
The total Cash Inflow it's the sum of $50.000 (gained from the sale) and the save on taxes for $4.400, because of the loss I get a payback on taxes, the total is $54.400.
Answer:
Project A
Years Cashflows Discount factor Present values
0 250,000 1 -250,000
1-10 45,100 6.144 277,094.40
Sum of all present value=NPV=27,094.40
IRR (by using trial and error method) = 12.4696%
Note: Discount factor for the year 1-10 is calculated by using annuity formula i.e [1-(1+10%)]/10% = 6.144
Project B
Years Cashflows Discount factor Present values
0 (350,000) 1 (350,000)
1 72,500 0.91 65,975
2 65,500 0.83 54,365
3 73,800 0.75 55,350
4 71,500 0.68 48,620
5 69,800 0.62 43,276
6 75,500 0.56 42,280
7 31,000 0.51 15,810
8 47,500 0.47 22,325
9 55,500 0.42 23,310
10 29,200 0.38 11,096
Sum of all present values=NPV=32,407
IRR(by using trial and error method=12.4186%
On the basis of NPV project B is better because it gives higher NPV than project A. Whereas, Project A is better than project B on the basis of IRR because project A has slightly higher IRR than project B.
b)The conflict between both the investment appraisal technique is likely due to different cash flow patterns of both the project. In such situation decision should be based on NPV because this is an absolute measure
Answer:
No option is correct, since you will have 200 shares and each share should be worth around $60.
Explanation:
If the 2-for-1 stock split takes place then you will have 200 shares instead of 100. For every 1 share that you currently own, the corporation will issue another share.
Since the price of the shares was $120 before the stock split, after the stock split the price will be divided by two (the same proportion). So each new share will cost approximately $60.
In order for option 2 to be correct, the stock spit should have been 3-for-1.
American Paper Company has a beta of 1.2. The risk-free rate is 6 percent and the required return on the market is 14 percent. The required rate of return on the security is:
<h3>What Is the Security Market Line?</h3>
The security market line (SML) is a line drawn on a chart that serves as a graphical representation of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)—which shows different levels of systematic, or market risk, of various marketable securities, plotted against the expected return of the entire market at any given time.
Its Also known as the "characteristic line," the SML is a visualization of the CAPM, where the x-axis of the chart represents risk (in terms of beta), and the y-axis of the chart represents expected return. The market risk premium of a given security is determined by where it is plotted on the chart relative to the SML
The formula for plotting the SML is:
Required return = risk-free rate of return + beta (market return - risk-free rate of return)
Learn more about SML on:
brainly.com/question/15877803
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