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Marat540 [252]
2 years ago
12

A mortgage of $80,000 with 2 points means the borrower would have to pay at closing $800. Group startsTrue or FalseTrue, unselec

tedFalse, unselected
Business
1 answer:
zavuch27 [327]2 years ago
3 0

A mortgage of $80,000 with 2 points means the borrower would have to pay at closing $800 is false because the real pay at closing is $1,600.

<h3>What is mortgage?</h3>

A mortgage is a loan that is used to buy or to maintain a land, home, or other sort of real estate.

The borrower checks to refund the lender over a period of time, usually in an ordination of regular installments divided into principal and interest. The property is used as security for the loan.

According to the given information,

Mortgage Amount = $80,000

Points = 2

Let the 2 points is taken as a percentage:

Point 1 = 1%, and

Point 2 = 2%

Now, as we know that in the loan process, the amount of point is cyphered at the closing. Then, the closing cost is commuted as:

\text{Closing Cost Amount} =\text{Mortgage} \times \text{Points}\\\\\text{Closing Cost Amount} =$80,000 \times 2\%\\\\\text{Closing Cost Amount} =\$1,600

Therefore, the given problem is false, that the borrower have to pay $800, he would have to pay only $1,600.

Learn more about the mortgage, refer to:

brainly.com/question/15074748

#SPJ1

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YoYo Fashion December 31, 2013 balance sheet showed total common equity of $5,500,000 and 250,000 shares outstanding. During 201
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

$23.6 per share

Explanation:

Given that,

Total common equity = $5,500,000

Shares outstanding = 250,000

Net income = $525,000

Dividends paid out = $125,000

Total value at the end:

= Total common equity + Net income - Dividends paid out

= $5,500,000 + $525,000 - $125,000

= $5,900,000

Therefore,

Book value per share at 2014 year end:

= Total value at the end ÷ No. of shares outstanding

= $5,900,000 ÷ 250,000

= $23.6 per share

7 0
3 years ago
A cash equivalent is a short-term, highly liquid investment that is readily convertible into known amounts of cash and Group of
rewona [7]

Answer:

so near its maturity that it presents insignificant risk of changes in interest rates.

Explanation:

As we know that the cash equivalent i.e .short term and also classified as the highly liquid investment that is always ready to convert into the cash amount i.e. near to its maturity also at the same time it represent the non-significant changes risk with respective to the rate of interest

Therefore the last option is correct

8 0
3 years ago
Although Elton Mayo originally intended to collect data for a traditional scientific management study, his breakthrough research
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

George Elton Mayo was well known for his theory about the human relations management which shed lights on things that drive employees motivation. The theory also tells about the factors which affects the productivity of employees, this lead to extensive research in this field which extended the field of human relations management. So it is true that scientific management study has a great contribution from Elton Mayo that lead to further studies of factors that increases the productivity of the employees.

4 0
3 years ago
Compare and contrast thinking skills and people skills
zalisa [80]

Thinking skills are internal mental processes like focusing, analyzing information, making mental connections, and generating ideas.

People skills are interpersonal skills like listening, communication, and building relationships.

Both types of skills are essential for success.

8 0
3 years ago
A company will pay a $2 per share dividend in 1 year. The dividend in 2 years will be $4 per share, and it is expected that divi
Savatey [412]

Answer:

(a) $ 46.43

(b) $ 50.00

Explanation:

In 1 year the dividend is:

D1 = $2

In 2 years, the dividend is:

D2 = $4

(a)

Now,

⇒  D3=D2\times (1+g)

          =4\times (1+4 \ percent)

          =4.16 ($)

In 2 years, the price will be:

⇒  P2=\frac{D3}{(r-g)}

          =\frac{4.16}{12 -14}

          =52.00 ($)

Today's price will be:

⇒  P0=\frac{D1}{(r-g)}+\frac{D2+P2}{(1+r)^2}

          =\frac{2}{1.12}+\frac{(4+52) }{1.12^2}

          =46.43 ($)

(b)

In 1 year, the price will be:

⇒  P1=\frac{(D2+P2)}{(1+r)}

          =\frac{4+52}{1.12}

          =50.00 ($)

5 0
3 years ago
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