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3 years ago

In calculating the unemployment rate, "discouraged" workers who are not actively seeking employment are

1 answer:

4 0

Not in the labor force (and as such, not considered: "unemployed").

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Reedy Company reports the following information for 2012:

asambeis [7]

Answer:

Ending WIP= $13,500

Explanation:

First, we need to calculate the factory overhead:

Factory overhead= 25,000*0.75= $18,750

Now, the ending WIP inventory:

cost of goods manufactured= beginning WIP + direct materials + direct labor + allocated manufacturing overhead - Ending WIP

68,250 = 11,000 + 27,000 + 25,000 + 18,750 - Ending WIP

Ending WIP= $13,500

4 0

3 years ago

________ costs are costs that limit the occurrence of defects and imperfections. prevention failure process assessment appraisal

ddd [48]

Process costs are costs that limit the occurrence of defects and imperfections. Process costing is an accounting methodology that traces and accumulates direct costs, and allocates indirect costs of a manufacturing process. ... It is a method of assigning costs to units of production in companies producing large quantities of homogeneous products.

7 0

3 years ago

If an individual investor uses the services of a broker to buy and sell stocks that are currently being traded in the stock mark

sergejj [24]

Answer:

a. False

Explanation:

A "primary transaction" refers to the selling of new stocks and bonds for the first time towards the public. A great example of this is the "Initial Public Offering" (IPO) which allows "public share issuance."

On the other hand, a "secondary transaction" refers to the trading of investors among themselves. There is no involvement of the issuing companies here. So, this means that if an investor uses the services of a broker to buy and sell stocks that are currently being traded in the stock market, the transaction doesn't directly involve the issuing company. This kind of transaction is then called "secondary."

So, this explains the answer.

8 0

3 years ago

Pay your Taxes :DDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDD

horrorfan [7]

Answer:

do you need help with that or are you saying that

Explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A two-year bond with par value $1,000 making annual coupon payments of $99 is priced at $1,000.

iVinArrow [24]

Answer:

(a) 9.9%

(b) 10.09%

The further explanation is given below.

Explanation:

The given values are:

Coupon payment

= $99

Price

= $1,000

(a)

The Yield to maturity (YTM) will be:

= $\frac{C+\frac{F-P}{n} }{\frac{F+P}{2} }$

where,

C = Coupon payment

P = Price

n = years to maturity

F = Face value

On putting the estimated values is the above formula, we get

⇒ $99+\frac{0}{1000}$

⇒ $.099$

⇒ $9.9$ %

(b)

Although the 1st year coupon was indeed reinvested outside an interest rate of r%, cumulative money raised will indeed be made at the end of 2nd year.

= $[99\times (1 + r)] + 1,099$