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Maurinko [17]
1 year ago
6

Need help solving this :)

Mathematics
1 answer:
PtichkaEL [24]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

  see attached (1=T, 0=F)

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression simplifies to ...

  q∨(p∧r)

so it will be false when q is false, and true only when p or r is true at the same time q is true. That's three true outputs for the 8 input conditions.

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zhannawk [14.2K]

Ok.

So an hour contains 60 minutes.

The fraction is therefore,

\dfrac{33}{60}=\boxed{\dfrac{11}{20}}

Hope this helps.

r3t40

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rewona [7]

Check the picture below.

let's firstly convert the mixed fractions to improper fractions.

\stackrel{mixed}{7\frac{1}{2}}\implies \cfrac{7\cdot 2+1}{2}\implies \stackrel{improper}{\cfrac{15}{2}} ~\hfill \stackrel{mixed}{12\frac{1}{2}}\implies \cfrac{12\cdot 2+1}{2}\implies \stackrel{improper}{\cfrac{25}{2}} \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill

\stackrel{\textit{\Large Areas}}{\stackrel{two~triangles}{2\left[ \cfrac{1}{2}\left(\cfrac{15}{2} \right)(10) \right]}~~ + ~~\stackrel{\textit{three rectangles}}{(10)(15)~~ + ~~\left( \cfrac{15}{2} \right)(15)~~ + ~~\left( \cfrac{25}{2} \right)(15)}} \\\\\\ 75~~ + ~~150~~ + ~~112.5~~ + ~~187.5\implies \boxed{525}

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The variable Z is inversely proportional to X. When X is 6, Z has the value 2.
Vera_Pavlovna [14]
Inverse proportion is of the form:

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Determine if the following infinite series converges or diverges
Mandarinka [93]

Using limits, it is found that the infinite sequence converges, as the limit does not go to infinity.

<h3>How do we verify if a sequence converges of diverges?</h3>

Suppose an infinity sequence defined by:

\sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} f(k)

Then we have to calculate the following limit:

\lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} f(k)

If the <u>limit goes to infinity</u>, the sequence diverges, otherwise it converges.

In this problem, the function that defines the sequence is:

f(k) = \frac{k^3}{k^4 + 10}

Hence the limit is:

\lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} f(k) = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \frac{k^3}{k^4 + 10} = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \frac{k^3}{k^4} = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{k} = \frac{1}{\infty} = 0

Hence, the infinite sequence converges, as the limit does not go to infinity.

More can be learned about convergent sequences at brainly.com/question/6635869

#SPJ1

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