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Anettt [7]
3 years ago
9

On january 8th your account was charged $30.00 for an overdraft fee. why did that happen?

Business
1 answer:
Zanzabum3 years ago
5 0

On January 8th the account was charged $30.00 for an overdraft fee because It was time to pay the monthly account maintenance charge.

<h3>Why bank charges an overdraft fee?</h3>

When a bank's customer don't have enough money to cover a purchase made using a debit card or a cheque, then the bank will charge the overdraft fee. Rather of denying a charge, the bank will pay it and charge a fee.

In the given case, because it was time to pay the monthly account maintenance charge, the account was charged $30.00 for an overdraft fee on January 8th.

Therefore, bank charged overdraft fee as the date of payment comes.

Learn  more about the overdraft fee, refer to:

brainly.com/question/1739416

#SPJ1

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Suppose Margaret and Thomas are the only two homeowners in the neighborhood. Margaret's demand for clean streets is Q = 50 - 2P.
pentagon [3]

Answer:

20 is the socially optimal number

Explanation:

In this question, we are asked to calculate the socially optimal number of clean streets given the marginal cost of cleaning them.

To solve this problem, we employ a mathematical approach as follows:

Market demand = Sum of Individual demand

Magaret demand = p = (50-Q)/2 = 25-0.5Q

Thomas demand = P = 40-Q

Market demand = 25-0.5Q + 40-Q = 65-1.5Q

MC = 35

Socially optimal number = MC = Market demand

35 = 65-1.5Q

30 = 1.5Q

Q = 20

3 0
4 years ago
Bartlett Car Wash Co. is considering the purchase of a new facility. It would allow Bartlett to increase its net income by $53,0
Virty [35]

Answer:

Accounting rate of return = 10.39%

Payback period = 4.62 years

Explanation:

The computations are shown below:

For accounting rate of return, it equal to

= Annual net income ÷ Investment

= $53,000 ÷ $510,000

= 10.39%

For payback period, it would be

= Initial investment ÷ Net cash flow

where,  

Initial investment is $263,000

And, the net cash flow = annual net operating income + depreciation expenses

= $53,000 + $57,500

= $110,500

The depreciation expense would be

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($510,000 - $50,000) ÷ (8 years)

= ($460,000) ÷ (8 years)  

= $57,500

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= ($510,000) ÷ ($110,500)

= 4.62 years

4 0
3 years ago
Who here needs a friend?
Scilla [17]

Answer:

Me

Explanation:

Why not

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 1, 2024, Ott Co. sold goods to Flynn Company. Flynn signed a zero-interest-bearing note requiring payment of $160,000
Sindrei [870]

Answer:$856,838.40

Explanation:

The sales revenue will should be the present value of paying $160,000 annually for 7 years. This is an Annuity but one that is paid at the beginning of a period making it an Annuity due.

Present Value of Annuity Due = Payment * (Present value of Annuity Interest factor, rate, period) * ( 1 + rate)

Present Value of Annuity Due = Payment * (Present value of Annuity Interest factor, 10%, 7) * ( 1 + 10%)

= 160,000 * 4.8684 * 1.1

= $856,838.40

7 0
3 years ago
15-year bonds 2 years ago at a coupon rate of 7.3 percent. The bonds make semiannual payments. If these bonds currently sell for
svp [43]

Answer:

The answer is 6.95%

Explanation:

We are looking for Yield-to-maturity (YTM). YTM can also be called rate of return or discount rate.

Note: The 15 -year bond was bought 2 years ago, meaning it remains 13 years

N(Number of periods) = 26 years ( 13years x 2)

I/Y(Yield to maturity) = ?

PV(present value or market price) = $103

PMT( coupon payment) = $3.65( [(7.3percent ÷ 2)x $100)]

FV( Future value or par value) = $100

We are using a Financial calculator for this.

N= 26; PMT = 3.65; FV= $100; CPT PV= -103, CPT I/Y

I/Y = 3.47.

3.47% is for semiannual rate

Therefore, annual rate is 6.95% (3.47% x 2)

8 0
3 years ago
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