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Anettt [7]
2 years ago
9

On january 8th your account was charged $30.00 for an overdraft fee. why did that happen?

Business
1 answer:
Zanzabum2 years ago
5 0

On January 8th the account was charged $30.00 for an overdraft fee because It was time to pay the monthly account maintenance charge.

<h3>Why bank charges an overdraft fee?</h3>

When a bank's customer don't have enough money to cover a purchase made using a debit card or a cheque, then the bank will charge the overdraft fee. Rather of denying a charge, the bank will pay it and charge a fee.

In the given case, because it was time to pay the monthly account maintenance charge, the account was charged $30.00 for an overdraft fee on January 8th.

Therefore, bank charged overdraft fee as the date of payment comes.

Learn  more about the overdraft fee, refer to:

brainly.com/question/1739416

#SPJ1

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Which of the following is correct with respect to Debt Service Funds?
Verizon [17]

Answer:

C. Debt service funds account for and report financial resources that are restricted, committed or assigned to expenditure for principle and interest for governmental debts except debt of proprietary and fiduciary funds who account for their own interest and principle payments.

Explanation:

Debt service funds are used to pay for principal and interest on certain types of debts. This reduced the risk of debt security that investors face and also reduces the effective rate at which the offering can be sold.

However debt service funds cannot be used for proprietary funds like 400 and 500.

Instead we use Enterprise funds for 400. That is operations similar to corporate enterprise. For example water and sewage utilities.

Internal service funds for 500 used by other funds or departments bin a government in a cost reimbursement basis. For example a food supplier that takes orders and is reimbursed for each order.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the purpose of the 1040 series of tax forms?
melamori03 [73]
It is the standard (IRS) form that individuals use to file their annual  income tax returns
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Mr. Hugh Warner is a very cautious businessman. His supplier offers trade credit terms of 3/19, net 60. Mr. Warner never takes t
vekshin1

Answer:

35.92%

Explanation:

The computation of cost of not taking the cash discount is shown below:-

Discount percentage ÷ (100 - Discount percentage) × (360 ÷ (Full Allowed Payment Days - Discount Days))

= 3% ÷ 97% × 360 ÷ (50 - 19)

=  3% ÷ 97% × 360 ÷ 31

=  0.03093 × 11.61290

= 0.359187

= 35.92%

Therefore for computing Mr. Warner's cost of not taking the cash discount we applied the above formula.

3 0
3 years ago
A portfolio manager has a large position in the preferred stock of XYZ Corporation. The manager is concerned that market interes
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

To hedge the preferred stock position, the manager should: Buy tyx calls

Explanation:

When market interest rate rise preferred stock drop. To hedge using interest rate index option, <em>the contract must offer an offsetting profit during a period of rising interest rates. Therefore buy TYX calls. </em>These will continue to give ever increasing profit as market interest rate continue to rise. And it will offset the ever increasing loss that would be incurred on the XYZ preferred stock position as the market interest rate continues rising.

The hedge is that Any loss on preferred stock position would be offset by corresponding gain on the long interest rate index call position.

5 0
3 years ago
In its first 10 years a mutual fund produced an average annual return of 20.4420.44​%. Assume that money invested in this fund c
mr Goodwill [35]

Answer:

3.73 years or 4 years approx

Explanation:

The computation of the number of years taken for money invested for double is shown below:

As we know that

Amount = Principal × (1 + interest rate ÷ time period)^interest rate × time period

where,

We assume the principal be P

And, the amount is 2P

And, the other values would remain the same

So,

2P = P (1 + 0.2044 ÷ time period)^ 1  × time period

2 = (1.2044)^ time period

Now take the log both sides

ln2 = ln (1.2044)^time period

ln2 - time period ln (1.2044)

So,

time period = ln(2) ÷ ln (1.2044)

= 3.73 years or 4 years approx

3 0
3 years ago
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