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lys-0071 [83]
2 years ago
14

7. Valuing semiannual coupon bonds Bonds often pay a coupon twice a year. For the valuation of bonds that make semiannual paymen

ts, the number of periods doubles, whereas the amount of cash flow decreases by half. Using the values of cash flows and number of periods, the valuation model is adjusted accordingly. Assume that a $1,000,000 par value, semiannual coupon US Treasury note with five years to maturity has a coupon rate of 6%. The yield to maturity (YTM) of the bond is 9.90%. Using this information and ignoring the other costs involved, calculate the value of the Treasury note: $849,059.88 $721,700.90 $534,907.72 $1,018,871.86 Based on your calculations and understanding of semiannual coupon bonds, complete the following statement: The T-note described in this problem is selling at a .
Business
1 answer:
Art [367]2 years ago
7 0

The value of the Treasury note is $849,059.88 and this is selling at a discount.

The value of a treasury note depends on different factors such as:

  • The initial value
  • The coupon rate
  • The value of the yield to maturity

Considering these aspects, let's calculate the value of the treasury note

Initial value: $1,000,000

$1,000,000 x 6% (coupon rate) =  $60,000

$60,000 / 2 (the coupon pays twice a year) = $30,000 - This value refers to the payment per period

Let's consider now the number of periods and the yield to maturity

Number of periods: 5 x 2 (the number of periods double) = 10 periods

Yield to maturity or rate: 9.90% / 2 (cash flow decreases by half) = 4.95%

Finally, you can use the PV formula to calculate the value:

PV (4.95%,10,-30000,-1000000) - This part is done in excel program as the original formula is quite complex

PV =$849,059.88

Based on this, the value of the note is $849,059.88, and you can conclude this is selling at a discount because this value is lower than the initial value of 1,000,000.

Learn more in: brainly.com/question/12881737

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Answer:

(B) $5,000 favorable.

Explanation:

Variable cost flexible budget variance:

budget for 6,000 units total variable cost: $180,000

We divide the total cost by the activity in that budget:

$180,000/ 6,000 = 30

Now we multiply by the actual volume:

5,000 x 30 = 150,000

Now we do flexible budget - actual cost = variance

150,000 - 145,000 = 5,000 favorable

It is favorable, as the cost where less than expected.

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Which choice best describes labor laws passed during the New Deal?
Airida [17]
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 A. union-friendly 

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3 years ago
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Assume that in January 2017, Vivendi announced a €1.2 billion bond issuance. The bonds have a coupon rate of 6.75% payable semia
andriy [413]

Answer:

C. The coupon rate on these bonds would have been higher if Standard and Poor's, Moody's, and Fitch had assigned lower credit ratings

Explanation:

Assume that in January 2017, Vivendi announced a €1.2 billion bond issuance. The bonds have a coupon rate of 6.75% payable semiannually. Assume the bonds have been assigned credit ratings of BBB (stable outlook) by Standard and Poor's, Baa2 (stable outlook) by Moody's, and BBB (stable outlook) by Fitch.

Which of the following is not true? The coupon rate on these bonds would have been higher if Standard and Poor's, Moody's, and Fitch had assigned lower credit ratings.

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3 years ago
The allowance for doubtful accounts currently has a debit balance of $200. The company's management estimates that 2.5% of net c
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Answer:

Bad debt expense (w/o allowance) = $2,875

Bad debt expense ( with allowance) = $2,675.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Net credit sales = $115,000

Uncollectible percentage = 2.5%

So, we can calculate the bad debt expense without Allowance for doubtful accounts by using following method:

Bad debt expense ( W/o allowance) = $115,000 × 2.5%

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