Answer:
The answer is 5.47 percent
Explanation:
Firstly, we find coupon payment (PMT).
it can be gotten from the price (present value) of bond formula:
PV = PMT/(1+r)^1 + PMT/(1+r)^2 ....... PMT + FV/(1+r)^n
N = 10.5 years
1/Y = 6.2 percent
PV = $945
PMT = ?
FV = $1000
Using a Financial calculator to input all the variables above,
Annual PMT = $54.72
Semi annual will be $54.72/2= $27.36
Coupon rate is Annual PMT /par value
= $54.72/1000
0.0547 or 5.47 percent
Answer:
A) debit interest expense, $1000
Explanation:
to determine the accrued interest expense = $100,000 x 6% x 2/12 = $1,000
the journal entry should be:
December 31, 2018, accrued interest expense on note payable:
Dr Interest expense 1,000
Cr Accrued interest payable 1,000
Accrual accounting establishes that expenses must be recognize during the period that they occur regardless of when they are paid. So we must recognize 2 months worth of interest.
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brainly.com/question/1872126
Answer: The price of the tied good is $27.
Explanation: The practice of tying is used to package products in such a way that the price of the tied (combined) good is closer to the buyers total willingness to pay for the two goods.
In this case, the total willingness to pay of Carnivore is $20+$7=$27
While, that of Leafygreens is $8+$12=$20
Thus, the producer will sell the combined good at $27 as it will give him more revenue.
Answer:
8.14 times
Explanation:
The computation of the Time interest earned ratio is shown below:
As we know that
Times interest earned ratio = (Earnings before interest and taxes) ÷ (Interest expense)
where,
Earnings before interest and taxes = Income before income tax for the year + Interest expense
But before tha, we need to do the following calculations
The interest amount is
= $350,000 × 0.08
= $28,000
The net profit is
= $1,750,000 × 8%
= $140,000
The EBIT is
= Profit before tax + interest expense
= $140,000 ÷ (1 - 0.30) + $28,000
= $200,000 + $28,000
= $228,000
And, the interest expense is $28,000
So, the TIE ratio is
= $228,000 ÷ $28,000
= 8.14 times