Answer:
The alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.
Explanation:
This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.
FV formula;
FV = PV(1+r)^n
PV = 800
discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12
total duration of investment; n = 3
therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3
FV = 800 * 1.404928
FV = 1123.94
To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124
A) is late recognizing that a recession has begun and conducts expansionary monetary policy.
Answer:
because he was not a big boss voting in his own version and was just about the same questions that he was doing in his first place to help him out
Answer:
That's because as a country's economy grows, the amount of revenue a government can spend to pay its debts grows as well. In addition, a larger economy generally means the country's capital markets will grow and the government can tap them to issue more debt.
Explanation:
hope it helps
Answer:
The correct answer is Spot market.
Explanation:
The spot market or spot market is one in which both the transaction and the settlement of an operation coincide on the same date. Although it is considered cash market when delivery occurs up to a maximum of 2 days later.
In spot markets, transactions are usually settled within a day or two after the date of purchase / sale. This is what is understood as a settlement in D + 1 or D + 2. The transactions are also closed at the current price on the asset in question that exists at the time of the transaction. This is one of the main differences between the cash market and the futures market.
