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alukav5142 [94]
2 years ago
12

Which feature provides the capability of setting a form field at a desired location in a form and restricting its movement?

Business
1 answer:
Sergio039 [100]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A

Explanation:

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Marcie and her husband, Franklin, each own 50 shares of Chestnut, Inc. Sally, Marcie's old high school friend, owns the remainin
RSB [31]

Answer:

$38,000 Dividend

Explanation:

Based on the information given the tax treatment of the redemption to Marcie will be $38,000 dividend reason been that her husband shares was been attributed to her, and Since she owns 60 shares her remaining 10 shares including that of her husband 50 shares of Chestnut's will be 110 shares calculated as 150 shares - 40 shares outstanding.

Therefore when we look at this 60 shares/110 shares is greater than 50% which means that Marcie fails the 50% test which makes the redemption to be treated as a dividend.

Hence, the tax treatment of the basis of the shares redeemed will be $38,000 Dividend.

8 0
3 years ago
How can you get your money back if you send a p2p payment to the wrong person?.
gladu [14]

When a payment is sent to the wrong person using p2p, the money cannot be gotten back since it is equivalent to giving money to a wrong account. However, the person can lay a complaint to the customer service to take action.

<h3>What is P2P Payment?</h3>

P2P payment is a system of payment where money is sent to another member of the crypto community in exchange for a coin to be sent to the individual's wallet. It is equivalent to giving someone cash.

When a user mistakenly sends money to the wrong person, the money cannot be gotten back. But if the sender has the details of the wrong receiver, an appeal can be made for the money to be reversed. However, if this is not the case, then the money would have to be forfeited.  

Learn more about P2P Payment here:

brainly.com/question/25107350

7 0
2 years ago
Stacy purchased a stock last year and sold it today for $4 a share more than her purchase price. She received a total of $1.15 p
dusya [7]

Answer: B. The capital gains yield is positive.

Explanation:

The Capital Gains Yield is a percentage figure that tells how much an investment has increased in price from it's acquisition.

It works by taking the new value and dividing it by the original value.

Using Stacy as an example, the Stock increased by $4 so assuming she bought the stock for even $0.1 then her Capital Yield is,

= 4/0.1

= 40 * 100%

= 4000% which is positive

As long as the stock was sold for more than it was bought, Capital Yield Gain is positive.

7 0
3 years ago
Carrying Amount $120,000 Selling Price $80,000 Costs of Disposal $5,000 Expected Future Cash Flows $90,000 Present Value of expe
frez [133]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

Under IAS 36, an asset is said to be impaired where the carrying amount is more than the recoverable amount.

The recoverable amount is the higher of the fair value less cost to sell or the value in use which is the present value of the expected future cashflow.

Given that;

Carrying Amount = $120,000

Selling Price = $80,000

Costs of Disposal = $5,000

Hence fair value less cost to sell = $80,000 - $5,000 = $75,000  

Expected Future Cash Flows = $90,000

Present Value of expected future cash flows = $85,000 ( this is the value in use)

Recoverable amount = $85,000 (since the value in use is higher that the fair value less cost to sell)

This is lower than the carrying amount hence the asset is impaired.

Impairment = $120,000 - $85,000

= $35,000

8 0
3 years ago
In the Excel, or spreadsheet, approach to recording financial transactions, if manufacturing overhead is underapplied by X dolla
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

To close the underapplied Manufacturing Overhead account requires that the Cost of Goods Sold is debited, say with $100 while the Manufacturing Overhead account is credited with the same amount.  Underapplied Manufacturing Overhead account means that a debit balance is left after applying the overhead to production.  To close this debit, therefore, a credit entry is required to the manufacturing overhead account.  The corresponding debit entry goes to the Cost of Goods Sold, or this may be apportioned among Cost of Goods Sold, Finished Goods Inventory, and Work-in-Process, as may be the case.

5 0
3 years ago
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