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Art [367]
2 years ago
14

Question

Mathematics
1 answer:
hichkok12 [17]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Area: 201.06

Circumference:50.26

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a circle: pi*r^2

8^2=8*8=64

64*pi=201.06193 Rounded to the neares hundredth=201.06

_________________________________________________

Circumference of a circle: 2pi * r

2*8=16

16*pi=50.2654825 Rounded to the nearest hundredth = 50.26

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On a map, the scale shown is 1 inch: 20 miles. If a city is 900 square miles, what is the area of the city on the map?
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

2.25 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The scale is 1\ inch: 20\ miles

That means

1 inch on a map represent 20 miles in the city

so

An area of (1)(1)=1\ in^2 on a map represent an area of (20)(20)=400\ mi^2 in the city

Applying proportion

\frac{1}{400}\ \frac{in^2}{mi^2}=\frac{x}{900}\ \frac{in^2}{mi^2}\\\\x=900/400\\\\x=2.25\ in^2

3 0
3 years ago
2m=-6n-5 literal equation
Bingel [31]

Answer:

read below

Step-by-step explanation:

Alright, archtan /  

tan

−

1

(

x

)

is the inverse of tangent. Tan is  

sin

cos

. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.

Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.

Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.

Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.

the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6

8 0
3 years ago
Hiro has a stack of cards with one number from the set 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4 written on each card. What is the probability that
professor190 [17]

Answer:

Therefore, the probability is P=3/32.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that Hiro has a stack of cards with one number from the set 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4 written on each card.  

We calculate the probability that he pulls out a 3 first and then pulls out a 2 without replacing them.

The probability that he pulls out a 3 first is 3/8.

The probability of a second card being 2 is 2/8.

We get:

P=\frac{3}{8}\cdot \frac{2}{8}\\\\P=\frac{6}{64}\\\\P=\frac{3}{32}

Therefore, the probability is P=3/32.

7 0
3 years ago
Jim ran 12 1/2 miles in 2 1/2 hours. How many hours for 1 mile?
Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

1/5 hours i.e 0.2 hours (which is 12 mins)

Step-by-step explanation:

First note that 12 1/2 = 12.5, and 2 1/2 = 2.5.

To work out how many hours it takes hime to drive one mile, we divide the number of hours (2.5) by the number of miles (12.5),

i.e 2.5 ÷ 12.5

which equals 1/5 = 0.2 hours (= 12 mins).

4 0
3 years ago
If x=3 what is 3x+7x(8x 5)<br> ALSO does anyone wanna ch.at?
koban [17]

Answer:  

56x6+3x

Step-by-step explanation:

3x+7x(8x5)

3x+56x6

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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