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2 years ago

3.

Mathematics

1 answer:

LiRa [457]2 years ago

4 0

Using translation concepts, it is found that there was a horizontal compression of the function.

<h3>What is a translation?</h3>

A translation is represented by a change in the function graph, according to operations such as multiplication or sum/subtraction in it's definition.

In this problem, there was a multiplication in the domain of the function, by a factor greater than 1, hence there was a horizontal compression of the function.

More can be learned about translation concepts at brainly.com/question/4521517

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Just question 1, please.

ANTONII [103]

Step-by-step explanation:

We can start by writing an equation to describe the data set. For 2D data, one equation form we can use is y=m*x + b, where x is the input and y is the output. Since yuan are put in and dollars are put out, x represents yuan and y represents dollars in this instance.

To find the equation, we can start by plugging in two points, such as (50, 1.25) and (100, 7.5). The slope, or m, is equal to the change in y/change in x, or

(7.5-1.25)/(100-50) = 6.25/50

= 0.125. This means that for each yuan put in, 0.125 dollars come out, according to the formula.

Next, we must find b. Plugging 0.125 in for m and taking a set of points, such as (50, 1.25), we get

1.25 = 50(0.125) + b

1.25 = 6.25 + b

subtract both sides by 6.25 to isolate the b

-5 = b

Therefore, we can write our equation as

y = 0.125 * x - 5

In this equation, there is an exchange rate of 0.125, meaning that for each yuan put in, 0.125 dollars are coming out. The -5 symbolizes that for each transaction, 5 yuan are being lost, which is the fee for exchanging money.

To check if the equation works, we can try it for options such as (200, 20) and (250, 26.25). This does work, so we can move forward with our equation.

For (c), our equation is y = 0.125 * x - 5, with the y representing dollars, x representing yuan, 0.125 representing the exchange rate, and -5 representing the fee for exchaning mone

For (b), because 5 yuan are subtracted from the exchange rate for each transaction, it is fair to assume that there is a fee for exchanging money. There is a fee of 5 yuan per transaction. In dollars, using the exchange rate of 0.125 dollars per yuan, this is equal to 0.625 dollars

For (a), the exchange rate is 0.125 dollars per yuan. We know this because for each yuan put in, 0.125 dollars are coming out after taking into account the fee

6 0

3 years ago

you are swimming each a 25-yard lap pool 3 seconds faster than your personal best what integer represents your change in time of

True [87]

24 seconds faster than your best

7 0

3 years ago

Match the expression to its simplified form.

omeli [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5³ = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125

$2^{5}$ = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 32

$5^{-2}$ = $\frac{1}{5^{2} }$ = $\frac{1}{25}$

$2^{-4}$ = $\frac{1}{2^4}$ = $\frac{1}{16}$

4 0

2 years ago

A famous Premier-league footballer was quoted on Match of the Day to have a goal-scoring statistic of 0.36

stepan [7]

Answer:

$13a.\ The \ probability\ of \ scoring\ a\ goal\ in\ a\ game\ is\ 0.36\\\\b. 3 \ games$

14.

$a. \ \£90\\b. \ 26 \ weeks\\c. \ \£4,860$

15. This is not possible since p(yellow)=0.10 which is less than the stated 0.35

Step-by-step explanation:

13 a. -A goal-scoring statistic is the probability of a player scoring one goal in any given game played.

-A 0.36 goal scoring statistic means that the player has a 0.36 or 36% chance of scoring a goal in any game that he is involved in.

b. To determine the number of games it takes to score a whole goal, we divide the probability by 1 goal:

$Games=\frac{1 \ game}{p(goal)}\\\\=\frac{1}{0.36}\\\\=2.778\approx 3$

Hence, it takes approximately 3 games to score a full goal.

14.-The cost of a GCSE retake is £600 and attracts a 15% deposit

#The 15% equivalent in actual pounds is calculated by multiplying the percentage by the total cost as:

$C_g=0.15\times 600\\\\=\£90$

Hence, the 15% deposit amount equals £90

b.#The student pays the balance in a £20 per week scheme,the total number of weeks is calculated as:

$t=\frac{Balance}{Rate}\\\\=\frac{600-90}{20}\\\\=\frac{510}{20}\\\\=25.5\approx 26$

Hence, it takes 26 weeks to clear the balance.

c. Given that 10% is the equivalent of £450

-We divide this amount by 10% to get the 100% equivalent

#We know that 10%=0.10

$100\%=\frac{540}{0.1}\\\\=\£5400$

#Alternatively, 100% divided by 10% is 10. Multiply this value by £540:

$=540\times 10\\\\=\£5400$

We subtract the discount amount for the per-discount price:

$Cost=Total -discount\\\\=5400-540\\\\=\£4860$

Hence, it will cost £4,860 without the discount.

15. Since we are not given the proportion of colors in the bag, we assume that all the 10 beads have different colors.

-As such, the sample space is 10 and each color has an equal chance of being picked:

$P(Each \ Color)=P(Yellow)=\frac{1}{10}\\\\\therefore P(Yellow)$

Hence, this is impossible since 0.10<0.35

7 0

3 years ago

A company find that 4 1/4 % of the tyres are defective. The company made 28,000 tyres. How many tyres were defective?

Bumek [7]

Answer:

595 pairs of tyres are defective.

Step-by-step explanation:

4.25×28000

____

100

0.0425×28000

1190 Total no. of defective tyres

1190 divide total tyres by 2 to get the exact pairs of defective tyres.

____

595 tyresof shoes are defective.

3 0

3 years ago