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sergejj [24]
3 years ago
14

The Winston Company estimates that the factory overhead for the following year will be $1,250,000. The company has decided that

the basis for applying factory overhead should be machine hours, which is estimated to be 50,000 hours. The total machine hours for the year was 54,300. The actual factory overhead for the year was $1,375,000. Determine the over or under applied amount for the year.
Business
1 answer:
Fiesta28 [93]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Over Applied = $1,375,000 - $1,357,500 = $17,500

Explanation:

Basis of overhead decided = $1,250,000/50,000 machine hours = $25 per machine hour

Actual Factory overhead = $1,375,000

Actual machine hours = 54,300

Absorption rate = $1,375,000/54,300 = $25.32

Therefore for 54,300 machine hours overhead shall be = 54,300 X $25 = $1,357,500

Over Applied = $1,375,000 - $1,357,500 = $17,500

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A) Depreciation on the company's equipment for 2017 is computed to be $16,000.
OleMash [197]

Answer:

Adjusting Journal Entries:

a) Debit Depreciation Expense - Equipment $16,000

   Credit Accumulated Depreciation - Equipment $16,000

To record depreciation charge for the year.

b) Debit Insurance Expense $8,100

   Credit Insurance Prepaid $8,100

To record insurance expense for the year.

c) Debit Office Supplies Expense $2,583

   Credit Office Supplies Account $2,583

To record office supplies used for the year.

d) Debit Deferred Revenue $2,750

   Credit Service Revenue $2,750

To record revenue for work done this period.

e) Debit Insurance Expense $4,200

   Credit Prepaid Insurance $4,200

To record insurance expense for the year.

f) Debit Wages Expense $5,000

  Credit Wages Payable $5,000

To record unpaid wages as of December 31, 2017.

Explanation:

Adjusting journal entries are entries made in the journal to accrue expenses and revenue in line with the accrual concept and the matching principle of U.S. GAAP.  The concept and principle require that expenses and revenue are matched in the period they were incurred and not when they were actually paid for or received.

4 0
3 years ago
Why is china australia's main trading partner
Nataly [62]
The reason for this is because they have developed a two way investment relationship. They also have conducted a free trade agreement. China is importing goods from Australia because they need Coal and Oil and Australia provides them with their needs and wants.
8 0
3 years ago
Edgar is a chef and the kitchen manager in an upscale restaurant. He is very knowledgeable in both the culinary and restaurant m
gavmur [86]

Answer:

Edgar is a chef and the kitchen manager in an upscale restaurant. He is very knowledgeable in both the culinary and restaurant management fields. Because he possesses these technical skills, Edgar can be considered an Management by objectives (MBO)

Explanation:

Management by Objectives (MBO) has to do with management of organization in terms of their goals and ensure maximum performance is recorded. Edgar used MBO as a result helps the restaurant to harness their resources and manage it efficiently.

8 0
3 years ago
Your firm can make a product in-house for $11.50 per unit using new production equipment which would cost $30,000. Your firm cou
Nikolay [14]

Answer:

The indifference point is 5,895 units

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

In-house:

Unitary variable cost= $11.5

Fixed cost= 30,000

Buy:

Unitary variable cost= $16.25

Fixed cost= 2,000

<u>To calculate the indifference point, we need to establish the total cost formulas for each option:</u>

In-house:

Total cost= 30,000 + 11.5x

x= number of units

Buy:

Total cost= 2,000 + 16.25x

x= number of untis

<u>Now, we equal both formulas and isolate x:</u>

30,000 + 11.5x = 2,000 + 16.25x

28,000 = 4.75x

5,895 = x

The indifference point is 5,895 units

7 0
3 years ago
What return do you expect earn if you buy the 3 years ,10% coupon bond today and sell it in exactly 1 year( if current price is
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

8.02%

Explanation:

Since corporate bonds pay coupons semiannually, it would be important to first all determine the semiannual yield to maturity of this bond using a financial calculator as shown below:

We need to set the calculator to its end mode before making the following inputs:

N=6(number of semiannual coupons in 3 years=3*2=6)

PMT=50(semiannual coupon=face value*coupon rate/2=1000*10%/2=50)

PV=-1051.45 (current price)

FV=1000(bond's face value)

CPT

I/Y=4.02%

After one year, there would 4 semiannual coupons left, we can compute the bond price as shown thus:

N=4

PMT=50

I/Y=4.02(without % sign)

FV=1000

CPT

PV=1,035.56

The expected rate of return over one year is computed thus:

N=2(number of semiannual coupons in 1 year holding period)

PMT=50(the amount of each semiannual coupon)

PV= -1051.45

FV=1,035.56(selling price after one year)

CPT=4.01%(on a semiannual basis)

annual rate of return=4.01%*2=8.02%

7 0
3 years ago
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