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muminat
2 years ago
12

Why is cvp analysis more difficult when using absorption costing than when using variable costing?.

Business
1 answer:
laiz [17]2 years ago
4 0

CVP analysis is more difficult because its requires costs to be broken down between variable and fixed which is not done in absorption costing.

<h3>What is a CVP analysis?</h3>

This is an analysis that find out how changes in the firm's variable and fixed costs affect the firm's profit.

Hence, the analysis is difficult when using absorption costing than when using variable costing because its requires costs to be broken down between variable and fixed which is not done in absorption costing.

Read more about CVP analysis

<em>brainly.com/question/26654564</em>

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A symmetric, bell-shaped frequency distribution that is completely defined by its mean and standard deviation is the _____ distr
crimeas [40]

A symmetric, bell-shaped frequency distribution that is completely defined by its mean and standard deviation is the<u> normal distribution.</u>

A symmetrical distribution about the mean, such as the normal or Gaussian distribution, indicates that data points closer to the mean occur more frequently than data points further from the mean.

The normal distribution is represented graphically by a bell curve. A bell curve of probabilities is more properly known as the normal distribution. The standard deviation is one and the mean is zero in a normal distribution. Its kurtosis is 3, and its skewness is 0. Not all symmetrical distributions are normal, but all normal distributions are symmetrical. The normal distribution can be thought of as a rough approximation of many naturally occurring events. However, most price distributions in finance are not normally distributed.

<u></u>

To know more about normal distribution refer to:

brainly.com/question/14725173

#SPJ4

6 0
1 year ago
You own a portfolio that is 34 percent invested in Stock X, 22 percent invested in Stock Y, and 44 percent invested in Stock Z.
Sonja [21]

Answer:

13.86%

Explanation:

34% was invested into stock X with an expected return of 11%

22% was invested into stock Y with an expected return of 18%

44% was invested into stock Z with an expected return of 14%

The expected return on the portfolio can be calculated using the formula below

Expected return= Sum of ( weight of stock×return of stock)

= (0.34×11%)+(0.22×18%)+(0.44×14%)

= 3.74+3.96+6.16

= 13.86%

Hence the expected return on the portfolio is 13.86%

5 0
3 years ago
Why is it in our self-interest to economize or pick and choose goods and services that maximize our satisfaction? Because of our
Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

The correct answer is the first option: Because of our limited incomes conflicting with our insatiable wants for goods and services.

Explanation:

To begin with, in the microeconomics theory, the individuals agents that are the consumers are all the time trying to satisfy their needs due to the fact that there is an unlimited desire for goods and services that keep continue to grow all the time and that conflicts with the fact that most of the people have only few and limited resources to get the necessary income to obtain all of those goods and services. That is why that the consumers always look for the way to maximize their satisfaction according to the available income that they have with the purpose to spend it on those goods and services.

3 0
3 years ago
RJ Miller Manufacturing Company produces a product that sells for $120. A selling commission of 10% of the selling price is paid
djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

$48

Explanation:

Contribution = Sales - Variable Costs

where,

Sales = $120

Variable Costs = $120 x 10% + $60 = $72

therefore,

Contribution = $120 - $72 = $48

The contribution margin per unit is: $48

6 0
3 years ago
The managerial accountant at Safety, Inc. prepared a Flexible Budget Performance Report. The managerial accountant noticed a $5,
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

The managerial accountant found out that the cost of the units previously sold was higher than the selling price per unit.

If the variance is unfavorable, it means that the total budgeted costs were larger than the total budgeted revenue. In this case the variance was $5,600 unfavorable. We are not told how many units were sold but it is obviously a mistake to sell products at a lower price than COGS. So the previous flexible budget was not properly prepared.

7 0
3 years ago
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