I think it’s B because you have to find probability
But I’m not sure
You have to multiply by 16's and then divide the two numbers
Answer:
should i simplify it? or factorise it?
<u>I</u><u> </u><u>g</u><u>u</u><u>e</u><u>s</u><u>s</u><u> </u><u>i</u><u>t</u><u>s</u><u> </u><u>f</u><u>a</u><u>c</u><u>t</u><u>o</u><u>r</u><u>i</u><u>s</u><u>e</u><u>!</u><u> </u><u>S</u><u>o</u><u> </u><u>i</u><u> </u><u>m</u><u> </u><u>f</u><u>a</u><u>c</u><u>t</u><u>o</u><u>r</u><u>i</u><u>s</u><u>i</u><u>n</u><u>g</u><u>!</u>
x^2+16+64
(x)^2+2×x×8+(8)^2
(x+8)^2
=(x+8)(x+8)
The answer is -8/15. This is a for sure correct answer.
Answer:
Please what are you trying to say
