Answer:
The value of the firm or worth of the firm is $147058.82 rounded off to 2 decimal places
Explanation:
We first need to calculate the required rate of return for this firm that will be used as the discount rate in the valuation of the firm using the discounted cash flow methods.
Using the CAPM we can calculate the required rate of return as,
r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)
Where,
- rRF is the risk free rate
- rM is the return on Market
So,
r = 0.04 + 0.4 * (0.11 - 0.04)
r = 0.068 or 6.8%
As the cash flows the firm can generate are expected to remain constant through out and they are generated after equal interval of time, this can be treated as a perpetuity.
The present value of a perpetuity is calculated as follows,
Present Value of perpetuity = Cash Flow / r
Present value of perpetuity = 10000 / 0.068
Present value of perpetuity = $147058.8235
So, the value of the firm or worth of the firm is $147058.82 rounded off to 2 decimal places
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The reason is that the betas are calculated using the past data which means that the Capital asset pricing model solely rely on the past data which is not the strength of the CAPM. It is basically a weakness of the model so the statement is incorrect.
A mutual funds is the instrument that may not be purchased on margin but can be used as collateral for a margin loan after being held for 30 days.
<h3>What is purchased on margin?</h3>
This generally involves the act of getting a loan from your brokerage and then, using the money from such loan to invest in more securities than you can buy with your available cash.
Through the method, an investors can amplify their returns if their investments outperform the cost of the loan itself.
In conclusion, the mutual funds can be purchased on margin. However, it may be used as collateral for a margin loan after being held for 30 days.
Read more about mutual funds
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Answer:
the difference between operating incomes under absorption costing and variable costing is $180,000 .
Explanation:
The difference between the two Operating Incomes lies in the amount of Fixed Overheads that has been deferred in Inventory.
So, calculation of the difference will be as follows :
Beginning fixed manufacturing overhead in inventory $230,000
Less Ending fixed manufacturing overhead in inventory ($50,000)
Difference between absorption costing and variable costing $180,000
Answer: Decreasing the money supply
Explanation:
When the Fed reduces money supply, it will remove the amount of excess money that people have to spend in the economy. This will lead to prices reducing because people no longer have a lot of money to spend on products therefore they will demand less goods. This will lead to the Aggregate demand curve shifting to the left. The new intersection with the Aggregate Supply curve will be at a point where prices will be lower and less quantity will be demanded which will signify a drop in the short-run output of the economy.
