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maw [93]
3 years ago
15

A common stock pays an annual dividend per share of $1.80. The risk-free rate is 5%, and the risk premium for this stock is 4%.

If the annual dividend is expected to remain at $1.80 per share, what is the value of the stock
Business
1 answer:
ArbitrLikvidat [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The value of the stock today is $20

Explanation:

Using the CAPM equation, we first calculate the required rate of retunr on the stock.

The equation for CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * rpM

Where,

  • rRF is the risk free rate
  • rpM is the risk premium on market
  • Beta * rpM is the risk premium on stock

r = 0.05 + 0.04

r = 0.09 or 9%

The value of the stock can be calculated using the zero growth model of DDM. The DDM values the stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. As the dividend from the stock is expected to remain constant through out to an indefinite period, the value of the stock today is,

P0 = Dividend / r

P0 = 1.8 / 0.09

P0 = $20

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PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Net income = 50,000

Preferred dividend = 2,000

Outstanding common stock:

= (40,000 × 2) + (10,000 × 6/12 × 2)

= 80,000 + 10,000

= 90,000

2016 basic earnings per share:

= (Net income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Outstanding common stock

= (50,000 - 2,000) ÷ 90,000

= 48,000 ÷ 90,000

= $0.53 per share

Therefore, the 2016 basic earnings per share is $0.53.

4 0
3 years ago
The per-unit standards for direct labor are 2 direct labor hours at $15 per hour. If in producing 1800 units, the actual direct
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

The correct answer is D.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The per-unit standards for direct labor are 2 direct labor hours at $15 per hour. If in producing 1800 units, the actual direct labor cost was $48000 for 3000 direct labor hours worked.

We need to calculate the total direct labor variance, using two formulas:

Direct labor efficiency variance= (SQ - AQ)*standard rate

Direct labor efficiency variance= (1,800*2 - 3,000)*15= $9,000 favorable

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Quantity

Direct labor rate variance= (15 - 48,000/3,000)*3,000= $3,000 unfavorable

Total direct labor variance= 9,000 - 3,000= $6,000 favorable

6 0
4 years ago
Contribution margin is always the same as gross profit margin. is calculated by subtracting total manufacturing costs per unit f
goldfiish [28.3K]

Answer: equals sales revenue minus variable costs

           

Explanation: In simple words, contribution margin refers to the amount of revenue that an organisation is left with after paying for the variable expenses that are incurred for the generation of such revenue.  

It is an important aspect of an organisation as it somehow depicts the ability of it to pay its fixed expenses like interests etc.

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are sections of the Schedule of Cost of Goods Manufactured? (You may select more than one answer.
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

C, D , E , F.

Explanation:

These all are connected with money.

Sorry if I don't get this right I never had this question before.

3 0
3 years ago
Edgewater Enterprises manufactures two products. Information follows: Product A Product B Sales price $ 13.50 $ 16.75 Variable c
olasank [31]

Answer:

The break-even point is $25,900 units

Explanation:

In this question we use the formula of break-even point in unit sales which is shown below:

= (Fixed expenses) ÷ (Contribution margin per unit)

where,  

Contribution margin per unit for product A = (Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit) ×product mix

= ($13.50 - $6.15) × 40%

= $2.94

Contribution margin per unit for product B = (Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit) ×product mix

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= $5.94

So, the total contribution margin would be equal to

= $2.94 + $5.94

= $8.88

And, the fixed cost is $230,000

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value would be equal to

= $230,000 ÷ $8.88

= $25,900 units

8 0
3 years ago
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