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Novosadov [1.4K]

3 years ago

10

How do you know that 50 is not a perfect square?

1 answer:

Alexus [3.1K]3 years ago

6 0

We can always do a prime factoring of it, and check

50 = 2*5*5
2*5²

a perfect square, so-called, is the resulting number of a squared value, well 50 is not the result of anything squared, is the result of 3 factors, in this case 2,5 and 5.

a perfect square will be something like say 64, or 144, because

64 = 8*8
8²

144 = 12*12
12²

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What is the slope of the line that passes through the pair of points (1/3, -1) and ( -2, 9/2)

UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

$\boxed{m = - \frac{33}{14} }$

.

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the form below

$\boxed{\boxed{m = \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1} }}$

Where

$m$ is a slope
$(x_1,~y_1)$ and $(x_2,~y_2)$ are the point of the line

.

So, the slope is

$(\frac{1}{3} ,~ -1) \to x_1 = \frac{1}{3} ~and~y_1 = -1$

$(-2,~ \frac{9}{2} ) \to x_2 = -2~and~y_2 = \frac{9}{2}$

.

$m = \frac{\frac{9}{2} -(-1)}{-2-\frac{1}{3} }$

$m = \frac{\frac{11}{2} }{\frac{-7}{3} }$

$m = \frac{11}{2} \div (-\frac{7}{3} )$

$m = \frac{11}{2} \times (-\frac{3}{7} )$

$m = - \frac{33}{14}$

.

Happy to help:)

7 0

3 years ago

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One bag of rice that weighs 4.5 pounds will have enough rice if a recipe calls for 60 ounces of rice. (1 pound = 16 ounces)

dimulka [17.4K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the bag of rice is 4.5 pounds, and there are 16 ounces per pound, multiply 16 x 4 = 64. Now what is half of 16? 8! So divide 5/8 = 0.625.

So in the end, yes the bag of rice will have enough rice. Here's my math:

16 x 4 = 64

5 / 8 = 0.625

So, you will have 64.625 ounces of rice which is plenty for your recipe!

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I really hope this helps you!

6 0

3 years ago

What is an equation of the like with a slope of 1/4 and a y intercept of -2

SVEN [57.7K]

Y = mx + c is the general equation of a line. m is the slope and c is the y intercept, by substituting these values in you get y = 1/4 x -2

3 0

3 years ago

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May someone help me out with this question

dedylja [7]

The answer would be 7.5

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3 years ago

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tekilochka [14]

Answer:

$\frac{1}{20}$

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to look at the # of chips. There are a total of 25, 6 of which are blue.

This means that the chance of getting the first blue chip would be $\frac{6}{25}$

As there is no replacement, the total number of chips is 24 and there are only 5 blue left. This gives us the chance of $\frac{5}{24}$

Now all we need to do is mulitply these two and then simplify

$\frac{6}{25} *\frac{5}{24} =\frac{30}{600} =\frac{1}{20}$

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