Answer:
$800
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
First we have to determine the total amount invested that is shown below:
= $11,000 + $4,000 + $5,000 + $8,000
= $28,000
And, the profit is $5,600
So, the percentage is
= $5,600 ÷ $28,000
= 0.2
Now the Gary share is
= $11,000 × 0.2
= $2,200
And, each share in profit
= $5,600 ÷ 4
= $1,400
Now the final amount is
= $2,200 - $1,400
= $800
Answer:
a framing bias.
Explanation:
given data
necklace he liked = $139
pearl necklace originally = $173.75
sale for = 20% off
reduced the price = $139
solution
- Rodrigo is subject to readymade bias. This bias refers to how people’s decisions affect situations, words, or settings. Although both stores have the same price, Pearl’s own stores create a relative factor
- It showed a high base price and a 20% discount, which made Rodrigo feel like he was making a deal, so he was more inclined to buy the necklace and not at the Murphy jewelry store.
Answer:
flexibility
Explanation:
According to classical economists, the price-wage-interest rate flexibility refers to a combination of flexible factors that maintains economic stability:
- Flexible interest rates keeps the money markets (loans) in equilibrium.
- Flexible wages keeps the labor market in equilibrium.
- Flexible prices keeps the goods and services markets in equilibrium.
Therefore, if spending declines, the economy will self-adjust using flexible interest rates (interest rates should lower), flexible wages (wages should lower) and flexible prices (prices should lower) until the economy rebounds.
Answer:
a. $13
b. $20,625 Unfavorable
Explanation:
a. Computation of overhead volume variance is shown below:-
Variable overhead rate = Variable overhead cost ÷ Expected standard hours
= $275,000 ÷ 25,000
= 11 direct labor hour
Fixed overhead rate = Productive capacity ÷ Expected standard hours
= $50,000 ÷ 25,000
= $2 direct labor hour
Total overheard rate = Variable overhead rate + Fixed overhead rate
= $11 + $2
= $13
b. The computation of overhead controllable variance is shown below:-
Variable overhead cost = Overhead rate × Standard hours
= $11 × 21,875
= $240,625
Fixed overhead cost = Overhead rate × Standard hours
= $2 × 21,875
= $43,750
Total overhead cost = $13 × 21,875
= $284,375
Actual result = $305,000
Variance = Actual result - overhead cost applied
= $305,000 - $284,375
= $20,625 Unfavorable
Working note:-
Standard direct labor hours = Actual units ÷ Standard hours
= 35,000 × 1.6
= $21,875
Standard units per hour = (Standard capacity × Expected production) ÷ Standard hours
= (50,000 units × 80%) ÷ 25,000 hours
= 1.6 units per hour
Answer:
150
Explanation:
As we know that
The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) = Marginal product of labor ÷ Marginal product of capital
where,
The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) = 0.20
And, the marginal product of labor is 30 chips per hour
So, the marginal product of capital is
= 30 chips per hour ÷ 0.20
= 150
The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) shows a relationship between the marginal product of labor and the marginal product of capital