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VikaD [51]
2 years ago
8

I need help please dont report.

Mathematics
1 answer:
alexdok [17]2 years ago
3 0

The questions are illustrations of probability and the usage of two-way tables

<h3>The survey of 1000 Argyle student</h3>

To do this, we make use of the following representations:

  • x represent owning a cell phone (x' is its complement).
  • y represent owning a PS5 (y' is its complement).

So, the given parameters are:

Total = 1000

x = 781

x and y = 133

x' and y' = 192

Using the above data values, we have:

y = Total - x

x and y' = x - x and y

x' and y = y - x' and y'

This gives

y = 1000 - 781 = 219

x and y' = 781 - 133 = 648

x' and y = 219 - 192 = 27

See attachment for the complete table.

<h3>The probability of cats</h3>

<u>Probability that cats prefer flying</u>

This is calculated as:

P = Flying/Total

So, we have:

P = 20/100 = 1/5

<u>Probability that a selected cat is an alley cat</u>

This is calculated as:

P = Alley Cat/Total

So, we have:

P = 41/100

<u>Probability that a selected alley cat prefers invisibility</u>

This is calculated as:

P = Alley Cat and Invisible/Alley Cat

So, we have:

P = 21/41

<u>Probability that a selected home cat prefers invisibility</u>

This is calculated as:

P = Home Cat and Invisible/Home Cat

So, we have:

P = 22/59

<h3>Ice cream flavors</h3>

<u>Probability of Peanut Butter Crunch</u>

The given parameters are:

Peanut Butter Crunch = 1

Flavors = 52

This probability is then calculated as:

P = Peanut Butter Crunch/Total

So, we have:

P = 1/52

<u>Theoretical probability of Cotton Candy</u>

In this case, we have:

Cotton Candy = 1

Flavors = 5

This probability is then calculated as:

P = Cotton Candy/Flavors

So, we have:

P = 1/5

<u>Experimental probability of Mango</u>

In this case, we use the table results i.e.

Mango = 1

Friends = 15

This probability is then calculated as:

P = Mango/Friends

So, we have:

P = 1/15

Hence, the experimental probability of Mango is 1/15

Read more about probability at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

#SPJ1

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6 0
2 years ago
The formula for the future value V (in dollars) of an investment earning simple interest is V=p+prt, where p (in dollars) is the
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Answer:

A. p=\dfrac{V}{1+rt}

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Step-by-step explanation:

You are given the formula

V=p+prt,

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p = principal,

r = interest rate

t = time

So,

A. V=p(1+rt)\\ \\p=\dfrac{V}{1+rt}

B. r = 0.06 (or 6% as percent)

V = $3,000

t =5

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3,000=p+p\cdot 0.06\cdot 5\\ \\3,000=p+0.3p\\ \\1.3p=3,000\\ \\p=\dfrac{3,000}{1.3}\approx 2,307.69

6 0
3 years ago
1.Evaluate: 144/16<br><br> 2.Evaluate: 13.5 x 17<br><br> PLSSSS HELP
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

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2. 13.5 x 17 = 229.5

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Step-by-step explanation:

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nata0808 [166]

Answer:

x= -9

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 0
3 years ago
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