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IRINA_888 [86]
2 years ago
8

Please help asap thanks so much!

Mathematics
1 answer:
sesenic [268]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

see the attachment photo!

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Use the definition of Taylor series to find the Taylor series, centered at c, for the function. f(x) = sin x, c = 3π/4
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

\sin(x) = \sum\limit^{\infty}_{n = 0} \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}\frac{(-1)^{n(n+1)/2}}{n!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^n

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

f(x) = \sin x\\

c = \frac{3\pi}{4}

Required

Find the Taylor series

The Taylor series of a function is defines as:

f(x) = f(c) + f'(c)(x -c) + \frac{f"(c)}{2!}(x-c)^2 + \frac{f"'(c)}{3!}(x-c)^3 + ........ + \frac{f*n(c)}{n!}(x-c)^n

We have:

c = \frac{3\pi}{4}

f(x) = \sin x\\

f(c) = \sin(c)

f(c) = \sin(\frac{3\pi}{4})

This gives:

f(c) = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

We have:

f(c) = \sin(\frac{3\pi}{4})

Differentiate

f'(c) = \cos(\frac{3\pi}{4})

This gives:

f'(c) = -\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

We have:

f'(c) = \cos(\frac{3\pi}{4})

Differentiate

f"(c) = -\sin(\frac{3\pi}{4})

This gives:

f"(c) = -\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

We have:

f"(c) = -\sin(\frac{3\pi}{4})

Differentiate

f"'(c) = -\cos(\frac{3\pi}{4})

This gives:

f"'(c) = - * -\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

f"'(c) = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

So, we have:

f(c) = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

f'(c) = -\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

f"(c) = -\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

f"'(c) = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}

f(x) = f(c) + f'(c)(x -c) + \frac{f"(c)}{2!}(x-c)^2 + \frac{f"'(c)}{3!}(x-c)^3 + ........ + \frac{f*n(c)}{n!}(x-c)^n

becomes

f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2} - \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4}) -\frac{1/\sqrt 2}{2!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^2 +\frac{1/\sqrt 2}{3!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^3 + ... +\frac{f^n(c)}{n!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^n

Rewrite as:

f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2} + \frac{(-1)}{\sqrt 2}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4}) +\frac{(-1)/\sqrt 2}{2!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^2 +\frac{(-1)^2/\sqrt 2}{3!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^3 + ... +\frac{f^n(c)}{n!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^n

Generally, the expression becomes

f(x) = \sum\limit^{\infty}_{n = 0} \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}\frac{(-1)^{n(n+1)/2}}{n!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^n

Hence:

\sin(x) = \sum\limit^{\infty}_{n = 0} \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}\frac{(-1)^{n(n+1)/2}}{n!}(x - \frac{3\pi}{4})^n

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Answer:

See explaination

Step-by-step explanation:

B. The equality relation on the real numbers is an equivalence relation.

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F. The less than or equal relation on the real numbers fails to be an equivalence relation because it is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric

This statement is true

H. If RR is an equivalence relation, then R2

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